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Tom [10]
3 years ago
9

Can you please give me correct answer​

Mathematics
1 answer:
dybincka [34]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

wait wait explain on what i need to do

Step-by-step explanation:

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Counselors at Rockport High School and Riverdale High School surveyed the graduating seniors to find out their post-high-school
siniylev [52]

The percentage shows that they were 28% more likely to come from Riverdale High school.

<h3>How to calculate the percentage?</h3>

From the information given, the percentage of those from Rockport will be:

= 25/(25 + 44) × 100.

= 25/69 × 100

= 36.23%

The percentage of those from Riverdale will be:

= 44/(25 + 44) × 100.

= 44/69 × 100

= 63.77%

Therefore, the difference will be:

= 63.77% - 36.23%

= 28% approximately.

Learn more about percentages on:

brainly.com/question/24304697

3 0
2 years ago
Calculus: Help ASAP
Serggg [28]
\bf \displaystyle \int\limits_{-1}^{0}~(4x^6+2x)^3(12x^5+1)\cdot  dx\\\\&#10;-------------------------------\\\\&#10;u=4x^6+2x\implies \cfrac{du}{dx}=24x^5+2\implies \cfrac{du}{2(12x^5+1)}=dx\\\\&#10;-------------------------------\\\\&#10;\displaystyle \int\limits_{-1}^{0}~u^3\underline{(12x^5+1)}\cdot\cfrac{du}{2\underline{(12x^5+1)}}\implies \cfrac{1}{2}\int\limits_{-1}^{0}~u^3\cdot du\\\\&#10;-------------------------------\\\\

\bf \textit{now, we'll change the bounds, using u(x)}&#10;\\\\\\&#10;u(-1)=4(-1)^6+2(-1)\implies u(-1)=2&#10;\\\\\\&#10;u(0)=4(0)^6+2()\implies u(0)=0\\\\&#10;-------------------------------\\\\&#10;\displaystyle \cfrac{1}{2}\int\limits_{2}^{0}~u^3\cdot du\implies \left. \cfrac{1}{2}\cdot \cfrac{u^4}{4}  \right]_{2}^{0}\implies \left. \cfrac{u^4}{8}  \right]_{2}^{0}\implies [0]-[2]\implies -2
5 0
3 years ago
What is the missing step in this proof
bagirrra123 [75]
Ok the parralelogram is 25 units and I think the angle of BCD would be 53. I got this by subtracting 127 from 180 since that should give you the whole square. and I got teh units by adding the lines BC and AB... Hope this helped
8 0
2 years ago
Pls help???????? need to have an explanation also
Ratling [72]

Answer:

I would say the answer is 40 cookies

Step-by-step explanation:

The reason I say this is because if you write out the amount of cookies she can make with 6 cups of flour, you would get 30/6. 30 and 6 are both divisible by 6, so if you divided both by 6 you will get 5/1. 1 times 8 is 8, so if you multiply 5 by 8 you will get 40 cookies.

Hope this helped!

7 0
3 years ago
Please help me with my math please?
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

y = y coordinate

m = slope

x = x coordinate

b = y intercept

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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