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brilliants [131]
3 years ago
9

uses a perpetual inventory system and reported $526,000 of inventory at the beginning of the month based on a physical count of

inventory. During the month, the company bought $59,200 of inventory and sold inventory that had cost $40,250. At the end of the month, the physical count of inventory shows $528,000 on hand. How much shrinkage occurred during the month
Business
1 answer:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$16,950

Explanation:

The computation of the shrinkage that occurred during the month is shown below:

Balance inventory = Beginning Inventory + Inventory purchased - Inventory sold

= $526,000+ $59,200 - $40,250

= $544,950

Now the shrinkage inventory is

= Balance inventory - Physical count of inventory shows

= $544,950 - $528,000

= $16,950

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Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

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Answer:

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The Weighted average cost of capital is abbreviated as the WACC. It is the weighted average of cost of common equity, cost of preferred equity and aftertax cost of debt. For a company to have a breakeven in returns, they need to earn a minimum rate of return on its assets which is equivalent to the weighted average cost of capital(WACC) making choice B correct.

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Answer:

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