I don't entirely know what you mean but I think an owner of a construction company would work well for an answer
The compound amount recieved by Jamie after 180 days is $1,466,844.98
Explanation:
We know that money in any sort of banking account earns interests in a compounding manner.
Amount at the end of time “x” is given by A= P(1+R/100)
ˣ
Where A= amount after the said time period
P= Principal
R= Rate
x= time period
One must note that “x” and “R” must be in same time-frame i.e. if the rate is compounded daily, time period must be considered daily and so on.
Substituting the values of P as $ 3000, R as 3.5%, and x as 180
Amount after 180 days= 3000 (1+3.5/100)
¹⁸⁰
Amount= $1,466,844.98
Thus, the amount is $1,466,844.98
Answer:
Direct method
Explanation:
There are three types of activities in the cash flow statement under the direct method
1. Operating activities: It records those transactions which are related to the cash receipts and cash payments.
Like:
Cash flow from Operating activities
Collections from customers
Less: Cash paid to suppliers and employees
Less: Interest and taxes paid
Net Cash flow from Operating activities
2. Investing activities: It records those activities which include purchase and sale of the long term assets
3. Financing activities: It records those activities which affect the long term liability and shareholder equity balance.
Answer:
inventory
Explanation:
Every item that is produced or purchased by the business in order to resell it and earn profit through it as a normal purpose of business, is considered as inventory.
In the given instance, Shroden manufactures consumer goods, like cookies, batteries, etc:
And since he targets to sell them and earn profit, all these manufactured products is the inventory of his business.
Answer:
b. $.66
Explanation:
The computation of the per share value for the one year is
Given that
Current Price = $43
Possible Prices = $42 and $46
Now
u = [($46 - $43) ÷ $43] + 1
= 1.06977
And
d = 1 - [($42 - $43) ÷ $43]
= 0.9767
And,
Risk-Free Rate = T-Bill Rate = Rf = 4.1 %
Now the up move price probability is
= [(1 + Rf) - d] ÷ [u - d]
= [(1.041) - 0.9767] ÷ [1.06977 - 0.9767]
= 0.69088
And,
Exercise Price = $ 45
Now
If the Price is $42, so Payoff = $0
And
if the Price is $46, so Payoff =is
= ($46 - $45)
= $1
Finally the call price is
= [0.69088 × 1 + (1 - 0.69088) × 0] ÷ 1.041
= $0.66367
= $0.66
