The reason there was a decrease in immigration from 1911 - 1930 was because of<em> A.</em><em> Increased restrictions</em><em> on </em><em>immigration </em><em>by the </em><em>Federal Government</em>
From the period before the First World War began up till 1930, some Americans began to call for a limit to immigration.
The <u>federal government responded by limiting immigration</u> through ways like:
- the Quota system - only a certain number of people were allowed in from certain countries annually
- literacy tests - immigrants had to pass literacy tests to be allowed into the country
This led to a decrease in the number of people being allowed into the U.S. and so led to a decrease in immigration.
We can therefore conclude that the efforts of the Federal government were the reason the immigration rates of those years decreased.
<em>Find out more at brainly.com/question/1012768.</em>
Germany was motivated to participate in imperialism because they believed that there could be large amounts of economic gains in setting up colonies in other regions.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Explanation:
El cuento Nido de Avispas, de Agatha Christie relata la historia de un señor enfermo, Harrison, que prentendía cometer suicidio y culpar al antiguo novio de su pareja de dicho acontecimiento al tenderle una trampa. Un viejo amigo de él que es un detective se da cuenta de lo que va a ocurrir solo por casualidad y decide impedirlo, le tiende una trampa a Harrison evitando que cometiera el suicidio mencionado y evitando que culpara al ex novio de su pareja. Harrison pensaba suicidarse debido a que sufre de una enfermedad terminal y a que se da cuenta que su amada novia había vuelto con su ex novio y era consumido por el odio de dichas situaciones. Al final el Detective regresa para terminar con el nido de avispas que se encontraba en casa de Harrison y que sería la trampa para que Harrison culpara al ex novio de su pareja cuando fuera a ayudarle a eliminarlo y le confiesa que lo salvó de cometer tanto el suicidio como de inculpar a un inocente lo cual, Harrison, agradece.
Byzantines didn't "become more Greek than Roman". They were already Greek to start with.
But anyways... lets not have me rant about that part.
The population was Greek. The empire was split into West and East. West centered on Rome (before the fall) and the East on Constantinople (A town in Greek). From the division working language was Greek.
Greek language and couture was more prevalent in the Eastern Roman Empire. When the fall of the West Byzantine court held onto the Latin language for official decrees and other state documents, but eventually even that was lost to the grater Greek influence.
Hoped this helped! Remember to change this to your own words. <span />