Which type of investment involves lending money and charging interest on it?

Hermansen Corporation produces large commercial doors for warehouses and other facilities. In the most recent month, the company

timurjin [86]

Answer:

Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable

Explanation:

variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected.

Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance

Hours

5,400 units should have taken (5,400×3.8 hours) 20,520

but did take <u> 20,800</u>

Labour hours variance 280 unfavorable

Standard variable overhead rate × <u>$ 7.90</u> per hour

Variable overhead efficiency variance $2,212 unfavorable

Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable

8 0

3 years ago

Ashton borrows $25,000 from Amanda, who lends the money without taking an interest in collateral for the loan. Amanda is relying

polet [3.4K]

Amanda is kind of an unsecured creditor.

<h3>What Is an Unsecured Creditor?</h3>

An unsecured creditor is an individual or institution that lends money without obtaining specified assets as collateral. This poses a higher risk to the creditor because it will have nothing to fall back on should the borrower default on the loan.

If a borrower fails to make a payment on a debt that is unsecured, the creditor cannot take any of the borrower's assets without winning a lawsuit first.

In other word, An unsecured creditor is a creditor other than a preferential creditor that does not have the benefit of any security interests in the assets of the debtor.

Therefore, we can conclude tat the correct option is A. Amanda is kind of an unsecured creditor.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was:

Ashton borrows $25,000 from Amanda, who lends the money without taking an interest in collateral for the loan. Amanda is relying on Ashton's credit standing when she made the loan. In this case, what kind of creditor is Amanda?

A) an unsecured creditor

B) a secured creditor

C) an administrative claim creditor

D) a post-petition creditor

Learn more about Unsecured Creditor on:

brainly.com/question/2872411

#SPJ4

3 0

2 years ago

Which of the following is a true statement? A. Adverse selection occurs after a transaction has taken place in insurance market

Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

FDIC gives insurance to depositors. it promises to pay back a certain amount of the deposits of a banks customers in the case where a bank fails. As a result of this insurance banks have a greater incentive to take on more risky projects because they know that their customers would be protected even the project goes sour and the bank fails.

Due to the services of the FDIC, less depositors have lost money when a bank fails because of the insurance services they provide to depositors.

8 0

3 years ago

The one-year forward rate of the British pound is quoted at $1.63, and the spot rate of the British pound is quoted at $1.60. Th

AysviL [449]

Answer:

The forward is discount, which is -1.8%

Explanation:

The forward rate is the rate of interest that is applicable or applied to the financial transaction, which will happen in the near future.

The percent is computed as:

= (Spot rate / Forward rate) - 1

where

Spot rate is $1.60

Forward rate is $1.63

Putting the values above:

= ($1.60 / $1.63) - 1

= $0.9815 - 1

= -1.8 %

which is forward discount.

8 0

3 years ago

Time Value of Money: Basics Using the equations and tables in Appendix 25A this chapter, determine the answers to each of the fo

kow [346]

Answer:

Present value (PV) = $3,000

Interest rate (r) = 6% = 0.06

Number of years (n) = 2 years

Future value (FV) = ?

FV = PV(1 + r)n

FV = $3,000(1 + 0.06)2

FV = $3,000(1.06)2

FV= $3,000 x 1.1236

FV = $3.370.80

Explanation:

In this case, there is need to compound the present value for 2 years at 6% interest per annum. The formula to be applied is the formula for future value of a lump sum (single investment).

6 0

3 years ago