I have an expression

floating around in my head; let's see if it makes sense.
The variance of binary valued random variable b that comes up 1 with probability p (so has mean p) is

That's for an individual sample. For the observed average we divide by n, and for the standard deviation we take the square root:

Plugging in the numbers,

One standard deviation of the average is almost 2% so a 27% outcome was 3/1.9 = 1.6 standard deviations from the mean, corresponding to a two sided probability of a bit bigger than 10% of happening by chance.
So this is borderline suspect; most surveys will include a two sigma margin of error, say plus or minus 4 percent here, and the results were within those bounds.
No HAHAHAHAHAahhahahsiaijxjs
Answer:
6
Step-by-step explanation:
(-2/5)-(-1/8)
Need to make the denominators the same
(-16/40)-(-5/40)
Multiply -2/5 by 8
Multiply -1/8 by 8
-- sign= positive
-16/40+5/40
Answer=-11/40
Answer:
The probability that a child with a rash does not have a fever is 22%
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Probability of having fever:

2. Probability of not having fever:

3. Probability of fave fevers and a rash:

4. Probability of having a rash but not a fever:

5. Probability of having a rash:

6. Probability a child with a rash does not have a fever

22% of the child at the doctor's office with a rash does not have a fever.