Answer: 1. b. A stock's intrinsic value is based on true risk in the company.
2. a. A company that has been distributing a portion of their earnings every quarter for the past six years
Explanation:
1. A Stock's intrinsic value is what it is truly a measure of it's true risk. It is not like the market price that follows trading patterns but rather is based on factors inside the company. It is often arrived at through complex calculations that take into account the business aspects of the company and as such is much more thorough. This is why it is the true risk of a stock.
2. The Dividend discount model of stock valuation relies heavily on dividends bein gdistributed to calculate stock price. The formula requires that the dividend of the next period be divided by the rate of return minus the growth rate. A company that is paying no dividends therefore cannot use this model to calculate stock value which is why the first option is correct.
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Answer:
The answer is C.
Explanation:
Current ratio shows the liquidity of of a company. This ratio tells us how a company or business is able to meet its short obligation.
This ration is very important to lenders because they use it to know of you will be able to meet the interest payment and principal
The formula for current ratio is:
Current assets/current liabilities
Total current assets is $493,000, Total current liabilities is $357,000
= $493,000/$357,000
=1.38
Answer:
Explanation:
MIRR equation is given by :
[(FV +ve cashflow / PV -ve cashflow)^(1/n)] - 1
FV +ve cashflow = Future value of positive cashflow at reinvestment rate
PV - ve cashflow = Present value of negative cashflow at finance rate
n = number of periods
The Modified Internal Rate of Return is a devised modification for the Internal rate of return, IRR which gives rate of return on percentage and overcomes the limitations of the IRR formula.
Answer:
The Erie Canal
Explanation:
When it opened it dramatically decreased the cost of shipping while reducing the time to travel to the West.
Answer:
Follows are the solution to this question:
Explanation:
In point a:
If the parent firm doesn't hold the conglomerate's equity stake, depreciation expense acknowledged by the parent company's owner and expenditures shall be removed throughout the consolidated statement of financial position. Its combined cash flow deletes debts previously recognized as assets for both the parent corporation and as debts for all the subsidiaries to offer a real and equal view. All the intragroup balance should be removed to avoid double-counting of financial assets resulting from payments in between the group's members.
In point b:
If a parent company has a stake in a subsidiary that is called noncontrolling interest over 50%, but less than 99 percent. Its parent company shall report a different non-controlling interest line on the income statement and revenue report to reveal its noncontrolling interest.
In point c:
Its Group of non - management Concerns may not claim responsibility mostly on a share of a benefit, doesn't have any influence from over parent's decision. Intra-group payments in a word-level shall be removed.
In point d:
Its NCI share of the opening in net assets of the subsidiary + NCI share of even an amortization fair value + NCI profits due to NCI - (dividend payable to the noncontrolling shareholder) = unlawful interest at the date of the merger is three steps for the calculation of total the uncontrol value.
