Answer:
3/4
Step-by-step explanation:
use a calculator
Answer:
![Var(X) = E(X^2) -[E(X)]^2 = 4.97 -(1.61)^2 =2.3779](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28X%29%20%3D%20E%28X%5E2%29%20-%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20%3D%204.97%20-%281.61%29%5E2%20%3D2.3779)
And the deviation would be:

Step-by-step explanation:
For this case we have the following distribution given:
X 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
P(X) 0.3 0.25 0.2 0.12 0.07 0.04 0.02
For this case we need to find first the expected value given by:

And replacing we got:

Now we can find the second moment given by:

And replacing we got:

And the variance would be given by:
![Var(X) = E(X^2) -[E(X)]^2 = 4.97 -(1.61)^2 =2.3779](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20Var%28X%29%20%3D%20E%28X%5E2%29%20-%5BE%28X%29%5D%5E2%20%3D%204.97%20-%281.61%29%5E2%20%3D2.3779)
And the deviation would be:

From the above function, it is clear that the value of f is never 0. Hence the statement that is true is (Option E), See explanation of same below.
<h3>What is the explanation for the above function?</h3>
Note that the function is related to Euler's number which is depicted as:
e ≈ 2.7182. The function is given as:
f(x) = 100 * 
Assuming x = -2, we'd have:
100 * 2.7182
= 271.82
= 0.00001353354
Hence, even when x tends < 0 the function f(x) thus, is never 0. See the attached graph for confirmation.
Learn more about functions at:
brainly.com/question/25638609
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