Hope this helps you!
30 times 6 divided bye 8
2 answers:
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9514 1404 393
Answer:
Youngest to oldest:
- 160,406.86
- 246,805.83
- 293,230.01
- 348,386.58
- 451,170.72
Step-by-step explanation:
At 9% interest per year, the present value of 1 at age 20 is ...
p(a) = 1.09^(a-20)
Adding the present values for the different ages, we get a total of about 2.35528984846. Dividing the inheritance by that amount gives the multiplier for each of the present value numbers. The result is the list of shares shown above. At age 20, each brother will inherit about 636,864.29.
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<em>Additional comment</em>
This is the sort of question that suggests the use of a graphing calculator or spreadsheet for doing the tedious number crunching.
(We assume the bank <em>pays</em> 9% per year, rather than <em>charges</em> 9% per year.)
The solutions to f(x) = g(x) are where the x-values for which the output f(x) is equal to the output of g(x).
What I mean by this is for instance, you input 7 into f(x) and g(x) and you get the same answer, then 7 is a solution.
Here, we are looking in columns two and three to see which rows are equal. It looks like when you input 0 into both f(x) and g(x), you get 2, and when you input 1 into both f(x) and g(x), you get 3. Therefore, (0,2) and (1,3) are your solutions.
What I mean by this is for instance, you input 7 into f(x) and g(x) and you get the same answer, then 7 is a solution.
Here, we are looking in columns two and three to see which rows are equal. It looks like when you input 0 into both f(x) and g(x), you get 2, and when you input 1 into both f(x) and g(x), you get 3. Therefore, (0,2) and (1,3) are your solutions.