Answer:
cash 910,000 debit
bonds payable 850,000 credit
premium on BP 60,000 credit
-- to record issuance of bonds --
interest expense 63700 debit
amortization 4300 credit
cash 68000 credit
--to record coupon payment at December 31th--
Explanation:
issuance:
cash proceed of 910,000 face value of 850,000 the 60,000 difference wil be a premium.
interest entry:
we multiply the carrying value of the bonds by the market rate
we calcualte the cash procees as ussual: face value x bond rate
the difference wil be the amortization on premium
910,000 x 7% 63,700
850,000 x 8% 68,000
amorization 4,300
Answer:
Bonds are a far more important source of financing than are stocks
Explanation:
There is so much of risk associated with the issue of stock. Though it is essential for any business to issue some stock, but bonds are always favorable as they have a defined maturity, defined amount associated, and defined interest payment.
There is no direct payment of interest in bonds but the expense is to be recorded in books as per the matching and accrual principle.
The discounted value of interest to be paid on maturity is recorded.
Further, there is a tax benefit on bond payments.
The decline in value of the real towards the U.S. greenback changed into precise for Embraer due to the fact the components for the nearby jets cost much less once they were translated into reals, making it tremendously reasonably priced to produce. therefore, Embraer's earnings margins have been high.
A decline in value takes place in any 12 months in which the modern market fee of actual assets is less than its adjusted base year price as of the lien date, January 1.
A depreciating asset is an asset that has a restrained powerful existence and may fairly be predicted to say no in value over the time it's miles in use. equipment, gadgets,s and different gadgets along with computer systems and books are depreciating property.
For example, if an asset is used 40% of the time for a non-public motive, the deduction for its decline in value is decreased by 40%. The decline in fee of positive property costing $300 or less may be the value, this is, you may be entitled to an immediate deduction.
Learn more about the decline in value here
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Answer:
$480
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Machine Hours Repair Costs
2,400 $6,385
1,200 $3,480
2,000 $5,285
3,400 $8,980
Now,
Machine Hours Repair Costs
Highest 3,400 $8,980
Lowest 1,200 $3,480
Difference 2,200 $5,500
Unit variable cost = $5,500 ÷ 2,200
= $2.5
Total cost at high level = $8,980
Machine hours highest level = 3,400
Also,
Total cost at high level = Fixed cost + Variable cost at highest level
or
$8,980 = Fixed cost + [ $2.5 × 3,400 ]
or
Fixed cost = $8,980 - [ $2.5 × 3,400 ]
= $8,980 - $8,500
= $480
