Consider a person who has Marfan syndrome, which is a genetic disorder. This person has only one allele for this disorder in the ir genotype. What does this mean about the allele for Marfan syndrome? Summarize evidence to support your claim, and explain your reasoning.
1 answer:
Answer: marfans syndrome is dominate
Explanation:
There is only one allele and so there would be like a 25% chance that the person would get it and so it kind of has to be dominate (I think o could of worded that Better but o cant think of the words to make it clearer)
You might be interested in
Answer:
pre production
Explanation:
Answer:
central-plan building type
Explanation:
searched it up
Pigment, blinder, and the additives.
Not only was he a well-known painter, he was also a Brilliant inventor.
That's False, I did some research and that isn't the right term.
If you're interested you can look it up for yourself.
