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Anarel [89]
3 years ago
11

Abbott Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. Abbott estimates that 3% of net credit sales

will be uncollectible. On January 1, theAllowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $2,400. During the year, Abbott wrote off accounts receivable totaling $1,800 and made credit sales of $100,000.There were no sales returns or sales discounts during the year. After the adjusting entry, the December 31, balance in the Bad Debt Expense will be:________.
a. $1,200
b. $3,000
c. $3,600
d. $7,200
Business
1 answer:
mixer [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

b. $3,000

Explanation:

According to the above information, the following data are given

Credit sales = $100,000

Uncollectible percentage = 3%

So, after the adjustment by using allowance method, Bad debt expense can be calculated as;

Bad debt expense = Credit sales × Uncollectible percentage

= $100,000 × 3%

= $3,000

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If property rights are not well enforced, all of the following are likely to occur except;_________
aleksandrvk [35]

Answer:

If property rights are not well enforced, all of the following are likely to occur except;_________

A. a significant number of people will be willing to risk their funds by investing them in local businesses.

Explanation:

Other options are likely to occur, except option A.  Investors cannot risk their capital investing in the local economy.  This is the fate of an economy where property rights are not protected.  This also underlines the need for each government to ensure that property rights are recognized and legally protected.

8 0
2 years ago
Which of the following choices is not considered a revenue producing business enterprise?
exis [7]
<span>b. public schools is the answer i did the test.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
Universal Laser, Inc., just paid a dividend of $3.10 on its stock. The growth rate in dividends is expected to be a constant 6 p
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

Ans. The current price of the stock is $56.82

Explanation:

Hi, well, the problem here is that we have different discount rates, in other words the required rate of return for the stock changes several times, therefore we are going to break this problem in 3 parts, or bring to present value all the cash flows in 3 steps. Let´s start with the value of the dividends.

We have to use the following formula.

Dn=D_{(n-1)} *(1+g)

Where, D(n-1) is last dividend and Dn is the dividend that we are looking for, for example, D1 = 3.10*(1+0.06)=3.29, D2=3.29*(1+0.06)=3.48, and so forth. The amount to pay on dividends per share is,

D1=3.29; D2=3.48; D3=3.69; D4=3.91; D5=4.15; D6=4.40; D(7)=4.66

Since the first 3 years are to be discounted at a 15%, this is how the formula should look like.

PV(1)=\frac{D1}{(1+r(1))^{1} } +\frac{D2}{(1+r(1))^{2} } +\frac{D3}{(1+r(1))^{3} }

PV(1)=\frac{3.29}{(1+0.15)^{1} } +\frac{3.48}{(1+0.15)^{2} } +\frac{3.69}{(1+0.15)^{3} }=7.92

Now, for the second part, we have to bring all cash flows to year 3 at r(2)=13% and then bring it to present value at r(1)=15%. This is because we have 2 different discount rates, this is as follows.

PV(2)=(\frac{D4}{(1+r(2))^{1} } +\frac{D5}{(1+r(2))^{2} } +\frac{D6}{(1+r(2))^{3} })*\frac{1}{((1+r(1)^{3} }

PV(2)=(\frac{3.91}{(1+0.13)^{1} } +\frac{4.15}{(1+0.13)^{2} } +\frac{4.40}{(1+0.13)^{3} })*\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } =6.42

Finally, we need to bring all the future cash flows from year 7 and beyond, notice that we need to use the return rate r(3) to bring everything to year 6, then we have to bring it to year 3 and then to present value, everything as follows.

PV(3)=(\frac{D7}{(r(3)-g)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(2))^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+r(1))^{3} } )

PV(3)=(\frac{4.66}{(0.11-0.06)} )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.13)^{3} } )*(\frac{1}{(1+0.15)^{3} } )=42.48

So, the price of the stock is PV(1) + PV(2) + PV(3), or:

Price=7.92+6.42+42.48=56.82

Price= $56.82/share

Best of luck.

3 0
3 years ago
An investment has the following characteristics:ATIRRP: After-tax IRR on total investment in the property: 9.0%BTIRRE: Before-ta
Strike441 [17]

Answer:

Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:

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After-tax IRR on total investment in the property = 9.0%

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t: Marginal tax rate = 0.40

Break Even Interest rate (neither favorable nor unfavorable):

= After tax IRR on total investment ÷ (1 - Tax rate )

= 9% ÷ (1 - 0.40)    

= 9% ÷ 0.60

= 15%

7 0
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Savatey [412]

$3000 because you are a madarchod okay

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