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Anarel [89]
3 years ago
11

Abbott Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. Abbott estimates that 3% of net credit sales

will be uncollectible. On January 1, theAllowance for Doubtful Accounts had a credit balance of $2,400. During the year, Abbott wrote off accounts receivable totaling $1,800 and made credit sales of $100,000.There were no sales returns or sales discounts during the year. After the adjusting entry, the December 31, balance in the Bad Debt Expense will be:________.
a. $1,200
b. $3,000
c. $3,600
d. $7,200
Business
1 answer:
mixer [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

b. $3,000

Explanation:

According to the above information, the following data are given

Credit sales = $100,000

Uncollectible percentage = 3%

So, after the adjustment by using allowance method, Bad debt expense can be calculated as;

Bad debt expense = Credit sales × Uncollectible percentage

= $100,000 × 3%

= $3,000

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Answer:

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b3-Choose the payment stream with the highest present value = b1

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a-1 describes an ordinary annuity whose present value is calculated as follows:

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b2-Present value =600*\frac{[1-(1+0.20)^-^1^5]}{0.20} =2,805.28

b3- f I were receiving these payments annually, I would prefer the payment stream with the highest present value ie b1- Annual payment of $800 for 10 years at 20% interest.

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