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yawa3891 [41]
3 years ago
12

You own a house that you rent for $1,475 per month. The maintenance expenses on the house average $275 per month. The house cost

$234,000 when you purchased it 4 years ago. A recent appraisal on the house valued it at $256,000. If you sell the house you will incur $20,480 in real estate fees. The annual property taxes are $3,250. You are deciding whether to sell the house or convert it for your own use as a professional office. What value should you place on this house when analyzing the option of using it as a professional office?
Business
1 answer:
lana66690 [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: <u>$235,520 </u>is the value that we should place on this house when analyzing the option of using it as a professional office.

Explanation:

Opportunity costs are a vital part and should be considered as the relevant cash flows of the project. All the important data regarding the cash flows must be pondered upon as  it might influence the cash flows while evaluating project decisions.

Here,

Incremental cash flow =  Appraisal on the house - real estate fees

= $256,000 - $20,480

<u>= $235,520</u>

<u />

∴ <u>$235,520 </u>is the value that we should place on this house when analyzing the option of using it as a professional office.

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Little LampLighter Inc has a book value of $10 million in debt; its bonds are trading at $900 and there are 11,000 outstanding.
kumpel [21]

Based on the amount of debt and equity that Little LampLighter has, the weighted average rate of return would be 12.3%.

<h3>What is the weighted average rate of return?</h3>

First find the total value of debt and equity:
= 10 + 25

= $35 million

The weighted average return is:

= (10 / 35 x 8%) + (25 / 35 x 14%)

= 2.286% + 10%

= 12.3%

Find out more on weighted average rate of return at brainly.com/question/17284158.

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7 0
2 years ago
A financial institution has entered into an interest rate swap with company X. Under the terms of the swap, it receives 10% per
sergij07 [2.7K]

Answer:

The loss of the financial institution is $413,000

Explanation:

Let's say that after 3 years the financial institution will receive:

0.5 * 10% of $10million

= 0.5 * 0.1 * 10000000

= $500,000

Then, they will pay 0.5 * 9% of $10M

= 0.5 * 0.09 * 10000000

= $450,000

Therefore, their immediate loss would be $500000 - $450000

= $50000.

Let's assume that forward rates are realized to value the rest of the swap.

The forward rates = 8% per annum.

Therefore, the remaining cash flows are assumed that floating payment is

0.5*0.08*10000000 =

$400,000

Received net payment would be:

500,000-400,000= $100,000. The total cost of default is therefore the cost of foregoing the following cash flows:

Year 3=$50,000

Year 3.5=$100,000

Year 4 = $100,000

Year 4.5= $100,000

Year 5 = $100,000

Discounting these cash flows to year 3 at 4% per six months, the cost of default would be $413,000

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not a liquid investment
evablogger [386]
UHH NO SElectionS?  WELL THEN.... IDK
8 0
2 years ago
You are hoping to buy a new boat 3 years from now, and you plan to save $5,800 per year, beginning one year from today. You will
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

FV= $17,701.6

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Annual deposit (A)= $5,800

Interest rate (i)= 5.2%

<u>To calculate the future value after the third deposit, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual deposit

FV= {5,800*[(1.052^2) - 1]} / 0.052 + 5,800

FV= $17,701.6

3 0
3 years ago
Union Local School District has a bond outstanding with a coupon rate of 2.8 percent paid semiannually and 16 years to maturity.
mafiozo [28]

Answer:

$4,420.35

Explanation:

Bond Price = C x [1 - (1 + r)^{-n} / r] + F / (1 + r)^{n}

Where:

  • C = Coupon
  • r = Yield to Maturity
  • n = compounding periods to maturity

Now we plug the amounts into the formula =

Bond Price = $140 x [1 - (1 + 0.034)^{-32} / 0.034] + $5,000 / (1 + 0.034)^{32}

Bond Price = $4,420.35

3 0
3 years ago
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