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Yuri [45]
3 years ago
11

Please help me with number 2 (15pts)

Mathematics
1 answer:
kipiarov [429]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

this only iz 8 pts tho ;(

Step-by-step explanation:

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What is the volume of a cone with a radius of 4 centimeters and a height of 9 centimeters? Use 3.14 to estimate p.
lilavasa [31]
The volume is 150.8 cm³


6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone please please please help with this problem preferably by the end of today? (later is fine too tho)
V125BC [204]

Answer:

Add all of the items, then multiply by 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Why by 5? Well, in order to make

5 cookies per player one batch would be made

so, 10 cookies pp = 2 batches

15 cookies pp = 3 batches

20 cookies pp = 4 batches

and then you would need 4 more to make 2 dozen, so you would then make another batch and have a few extra, but you would have 2 dozen per player!

hope this helps!!

3 0
2 years ago
Help pls
babymother [125]

Answer:

1). x = 10 m

2). x = 15 cm

3). x = 5 yd

4). AB = 10 units

Step-by-step explanation:

1). By Pythagoras theorem in the given triangle,

 a² + b² = c²

 Where 'c' = Hypotenuse

 a and b = Legs of the right triangle

 By substituting measures of the sides in the formula,

 x² = 8² + 6²

 x = \sqrt{100}

 x = 10 m

2). By using Pythagoras theorem in this triangle,

  x² = 9² + (12)²

  x² = 81 + 144

  x = \sqrt{225}

  x = 15 cm

3). By Pythagoras theorem,

  (13)² = x² + (12)²  

  169 = x² + 144

  169 - 144 = x²

  25 = x²

  x = 5 yd

4). If BD is a perpendicular bisector of AC,

  AD = CD = 6 cm

  By Pythagoras theorem in ΔABD,

  AB² = BD² + AD²

  AB² = 8² + 6²

  AB = \sqrt{100}

  AB = 10 units

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Factor completely x2 − 36
Hoochie [10]
X² - 36 = x² - 6² = (x-6)(x+6)
5 0
2 years ago
One thousand independent rolls of a fair die will be made. Compute an approximation to the probability that the number 6 will ap
pashok25 [27]

Answer:

0.19

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

Number of rolls of die=n=1000

Let the event of six coming up be success.Then, in each trial , the probability of success =p=P(success)=P(6)=\frac{1}{6}

Let X be the random variable  for the number of sixes  in the 1000 rolls of die.

Then, X\sim Binom(1000,\frac{1}{6})

Since, n is very large,the binomial random variable can be approximated as normal random variable.

Mean,\mu=np=1000\times \frac{1}{6}=166.67

Variance=\sigma^2=np(1-p)=1000\times \farc{1}{6}\times (1-\frac{1}{6})=1000\times \frac{5}{36}=138.89

X\sim N(166.67,138.89)

P(150\leq X\leq 200)=P[\frac{150-166.67}{11.79}\leq \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}\leq \frac{200-166.67}{11.79}]

=P[-1.41\leq Z\leq 2.83]=P[Z\leq 2.83]-P[Z

=\phi(2.83)-\phi(-1.41)

=0.9977-0.0793=0.9184

Thus, the probability that the number 6 appears between 150 to 200 times=0.92

Now, given that 6 appears exactly 200 times .

Therefore, other number appear in other 800 rolls .

We have to find the probability that the  number 5 will appear less than 150 times.

Therefore, for 800 rolls, let the event of 5 coming up be success.

Then , p=P(success)=P(5)=\frac{1}{5}

Let Y be the random variable denoting the number of times  5 coming up in 800 rolls.

Then, Y\sim bin(800,\frac{1}{5})

Mean,\mu=np=800\times \frac{1}{5}=160

Variance, \sigma^2=np(1-p)=800\times \frac{1}{5}(1-\frac{1}{5})=128

Y\sim N(160,128) because n is large

P(Y

P(Y

Hence, the probability that the number 5 will appear less than 150 times given that 6 appeared exactly 200 times=0.19

4 0
2 years ago
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