Answer:
260,000
Step-by-step explanation:
The value decreases by 40,000 per year (500000-42000/2 years) the value will decrease by 240000 in six (4 years plus 2 years already passed) years. 6 x 40,000 =240000
So, the value should be 260,000 (500000-240000)
Or
year 1 500000-40000=460000
year 2 460000-40000=420000
year 3 420000-40000=380000
year 4 380000-40000=340000
year 5 340000-40000=300000
year 6 300000-40000=260000
9514 1404 393
Answer:
-312
Step-by-step explanation:
The general term of an arithmetic sequence is ...
an = a1 +d(n -1)
Here, you have first term a1 = 31, and common difference d = 24-31 = -7. So, the 50th term is ...
a50 = 31 -7(50 -1) = 31 -7(49) = -312
The 50th term for the sequence is -312.
Answer:
The following lines is perpendicular, y=-x+6 and y=x+1
Step-by-step explanation:
- Slope of parallel lines are equal
(ex. slope of 2 stays 2 )
- Slope of perpendicular lines to another is the negative reciprocal
(ex. slope of 2 becomes -1/2)
y = -x + 6 and y = x + 1
the slope for y = -x + 6 is <em>-1 (-1/1)</em>
the slope for y = x + 1 is <em>1</em>
the slope -1 is the negative reciprocal of 1
hence, the definition of perpendicular fits the given
Learn more about Perpendicular and Parallel Lines here: brainly.com/question/1202004
4 in normal math, but in binary the answer is 1.
Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation: