Why would there be a difference between percentages with the Empirical Rule and the actual percentages?

Mathematics

1 answer:

IgorC [24]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Given that $\int\limits^a_b {\frac{1}{2\pi } e^{-1/2} x} \, dx$ is not the easiest equation to solve, and that

the values at the convenient ± 1 sigma,± 2 sigma,± 3 sigma are irrational

using the "rule-of-thumb" "empirical rule" is typically "close enough"

given that the whole probability analysis by definition has some uncertainty in it

Step-by-step explanation:

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