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tigry1 [53]
3 years ago
7

. Write an inequality for each

Mathematics
1 answer:
KiRa [710]3 years ago
8 0
C is the correct answer
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Need answer asap.thanks​
Marrrta [24]

Answer:

0.46=\frac{23}{50}

Step-by-step explanation:

To write any decimal as a fraction you divide by 1 and multiply by a number (ranging from 10, 100, 1000 etc.) that will make 0.46 a whole number, this will explain:

Let x = \frac{0.46}{1}

10x = 10*\frac{0.46}{1} =\frac{4.6}{10}

100x = 100*\frac{0.46}{1}=\frac{46}{100} this is our perfect fraction, now we simplify later

100x - 10x = \frac{46}{100} -\frac{4.6}{10}

90x = \frac{46}{100} -\frac{4.6}{10} =0  this is to confirm both fractions are equal

x is the same as \frac{0.46}{1} as \frac{4.6}{10} as \frac{46}{100} but here x = \frac{46}{100} because a fraction has to have no decimals.

So  0.46 is equal any of these values, as a fraction, on the other hand, it's improperly equal to \frac{46}{100} = \frac{23}{50} here I divided by 2 to bring down the proper fraction. (fraction at its simplest form)

6 0
3 years ago
Help I’ll give Brainly
Temka [501]

Answer:

probability = area of shaded region / total area

P = π (y²-x²) /πy²

P = y²-x²/y²

Option D is correct ...

mark me as brainliest ❤️

3 0
3 years ago
A particle sits on a smooth surface and is acted upon by a time dependent horizontal force, giving it an
garik1379 [7]

(a) By the fundamental theorem of calculus,

<em>v(t)</em> = <em>v(0)</em> + ∫₀ᵗ <em>a(u)</em> d<em>u</em>

The particle starts at rest, so <em>v(0)</em> = 0. Computing the integral gives

<em>v(t)</em> = [2/3 <em>u</em> ³ + 2<em>u</em> ²]₀ᵗ = 2/3 <em>t</em> ³ + 2<em>t</em> ²

(b) Use the FTC again, but this time you want the distance, which means you need to integrate the <u>speed</u> of the particle, i.e. the absolute value of <em>v(t)</em>. Fortunately, for <em>t</em> ≥ 0, we have <em>v(t)</em> ≥ 0 and |<em>v(t)</em> | = <em>v(t)</em>, so speed is governed by the same function. Taking the starting point to be the origin, after 8 seconds the particle travels a distance of

∫₀⁸ <em>v(u)</em> d<em>u</em> = ∫₀⁸ (2/3 <em>u</em> ³ + 2<em>u</em> ²) d<em>u</em> = [1/6 <em>u</em> ⁴ + 2/3 <em>u</em> ³]₀⁸ = 1024

7 0
3 years ago
when a pen is sold at a discount of 15%, there is a gain of Rs 10. but if it is sold at 25% discount, there is a loss of Rs 2. f
LenaWriter [7]

Answer:

Rs 120.  

Step-by-step explanation:

10=0.85SP-CP; CP+10=0.85SP; SP=[CP+10]/0.85 Eq 1. Let SP= Selling Price and CP= Cost Price

-2 =0.75SP-CP; 0.75SP=C-2; SP=[CP-2]/0.75 Eq 2

[CP+10]/0.85=[CP-2]/0.75 : SP of Eq 1=SP of Eq 2

0.75[CP+10]=0.85[CP-2]

0.75CP+7.5=0.85CP-1.7

0.85CP-0.75CP=-1.7–7.5=9.2

0.10CP=9.2; CP=9.2/0.10

CP=Rs 92 Cost Price of pen

10=0.85SP-92; 0.85SP=92+10=102; SP=102/0.85=Rs 120 Marked Price of pen (answer)

From Eq2: -2=0.75SP-CP; 0.75SP=CP-2=92–2=90; SP=90/0.75=Rs120; -2=0.75(120)-CP; CP-2=0.75(120); CP-2=90; CP=90+2=Rs 92

Set CP of Eq 1=CP of Eq 2:

CP=0.85SP-10 from Eq 1; CP=0.75SP+2 from Eq 2;

0.85SP-10=0.75SP+2; 0.85SP-0.75SP=10+2=12

0.10SP=12; SP=12/0.10=Rs120 is the Marked Price(answer)

Normally, the Selling Price is the marked price. The seller will not disclose the Cost Price because it is the price when the item was acquired or procured, otherwise the buyer will ask for more discounts and based his buying price from the Cost Price if it is known. The calculated SP and CP satisfy both Eq 1 and Eq 2. Both Eq 1 and Eq 2 satisfy the given conditions of the problem above.

8 0
3 years ago
What is 2 1/2 * 1 1\2 have it as a mixed fraction pls.
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer: 15/4 or 3 3/4

Explanation: You make 2 1/2 into 5/2 (improper fraction) and 1 1/2 into 3/2.

You multiply the two together (5/2 x 3/2) equaling 15/4 (improper fraction) or 3 3/4 (mixed fraction)

6 0
3 years ago
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