Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The question relates to dividing a fraction by proper and another fraction
The given expression is presented as follows;
We rearrange the fractions as improper fractions for easier division as follows;
Therefore, we have;
Answer:
zero
Step-by-step explanation:
because it's horizontal line
Answer:
-2^(x-2)
Step-by-step explanation:
Using differential calculus:
We know that the integral of 1/x = ln(x)
or 2x/ln(2) = log2(x), so we plug in our knowledge and chain rule to figure out that the answer to the inverse is -2^(x-2) :)
Answer:
.
Step-by-step explanation: