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Suppose management estimated the market valuation of some obsolete inventory at $99,000; this inventory was recorded at $120,000

Annette [7]

Answer:

a. An audit adjustment is needed since the best case scenario, where the net realizable value is highest would result in $92,000 - $5,000 = $87,000.

b. the value of inventory must decerase by $99,000 - $87,000 = $12,000, so COGS must increase by that amount:

Dr Cost of goods sold 12,000

Cr Merchandise inventory 12,000

4 0

3 years ago

Lina Co. uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. On January 28, Lina determines that a $200 balance from ZRT, Inc. i

elena55 [62]

Answer:

c) credit to Accounts Receivable - ZRT.

f) debit to Allowance for Doubtful Accounts.

Explanation:

As for the information provided,

We know in allowance method, provision is created as and when there are doubtful debts, for which entry is

Bad Debts Expense Account Dr.

To Allowance for doubtful debts.

And when the bad debts are actually written off then,

The entry will reduce the balance of accounts receivables and that of allowance as well.

Entry will be:

Allowance for Doubtful debts A/c Dr.

To Accounts Receivables.

Thus, correct options shall be:

Option c) and f)

4 0

3 years ago

You’ve just joined the investment banking firm of Dewey, Cheatum, and Howe. They’ve offered you two different salary arrangement

Fed [463]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Option 1:

You can have $72,000 per year for the next two years

Option 2:

You can have $61,000 per year for the next two years, along with a $17,000 signing bonus today. The bonus is paid immediately, and the salary is paid in equal amounts at the end of each month.

The interest rate is 9 percent compounded monthly.

To calculate the present value, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

First, we need to calculate the final value on both options:

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

For each year

Option 1:

i= 0.09/12= 0.0075

n= 12

Year 1= 72,000*1.0075^24= 86,141.77

Year 2= 72,000*1.0075^12= 78,754.09

Total= 164,895.86

PV= 164,895.86/1.0075^24= 137,825.14

Option 2:

Year 1= 61,000*1.0075^24= 72,981.23

Year 2= 61,000*1.0075^12= 66,722.22

Total= 139,703.45

PV= 139,703.45/ 1.0075^24= 116,768.53 + 17,000= 133,768.53

Option 1 is more profitable.

8 0

3 years ago

a. After the magazine The Economist publishes an article indicating that analysts expect the value of Tunisian dinars to rise re

german

Answer: Depreciate

Explanation:

The Economist is a widely respected financial and economic magazine which means that their articles can cause movements in the market especially when backed up by analysts.

The Economist believes that the Tunisian Dinar will rise relative to the Peruvian Sol, this means that the Peruvian Sol will depreciate against the Tunisian Diner. Some people and entities holding Peruvian Sol assets will try to offload it so that they do not suffer losses.

This increase in supply and reduction in demand for the Peruvian Sol will lead to it depreciating.

3 0

3 years ago

Jacinda quit her job as a blackjack dealer where she made $42,000 per year to start her own florist business. Her business expe

polet [3.4K]

Answer:

Opportunity costs = 42,000 + 14,000 + 21,000 + 9,000 = $86,000

Explanation:

Opportunity cost is the cost of doing the next alternative.

In this case the opportunity cost would be the profits she has forgone and the costs she incurred to run the florist shop. Personal expenses are not included as we assume apartment and bill costs would be payable regardless of any decision.

Opportunity Costs = Next alternative + Costs of being a florist

Opportunity costs = 42,000 + 14,000 + 21,000 + 9,000 = $86,000

If Jacinda were making profits, we would subtract them from the salary that she could have earned.

Hope that helps.

3 0

4 years ago