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Strike441 [17]
2 years ago
12

Session Corporation uses a job-order costing system with a single plantwide predetermined overhead rate based on direct labor-ho

urs. The company based its predetermined overhead rate for the current year on the following data: Total direct labor-hours 70,000 Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $511,000 Variable manufacturing overhead per direct labor-hour $ 2.10 Recently, Job K913 was completed with the following characteristics: Total direct labor-hours 150 Direct materials $ 705 Direct labor cost $4,650 The total job cost for Job K913 is closest to: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.) Multiple Choice
Business
1 answer:
vitfil [10]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Total cost= $6,765

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Total direct labor-hours 70,000

Total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $511,000

Variable manufacturing overhead per direct labor-hour $ 2.10

<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= (511,000/70,000) + 2.1

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $9.4 per direct labor hour

<u>Job K913:</u>

Total direct labor-hours 150

Direct materials $ 705

Direct labor cost $4,650

Total cost= 705 + 4,650 + (150*9.4)

Total cost= $6,765

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g invested $800,000 in a new CNC hot wire cutting machine. They intend to sell foam products fabricated using this machine. At a
lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

Quarterly income = $ 36,643.03

Explanation:

The quarterly income ca be determined using the present value of the annuity technique.

The Present Value of the annuity technique

PV = A × ((1- (1+r)^(-n)/r

A- quarterly payment, n- number of quarters, quarterly rate, PV - Present of investment

A- ?  n -3× 12= 36, r-12%/4= 3%

800,000 = A×  (1- (1.03)^(-36)

800,000 = A×  (1- (1.03)^(-36)

800,000 = A × 21.8322525

A = 800,000/21.8322525

A= 36,643.03

Quarterly income = $ 36,643.03

7 0
3 years ago
Name four reasons for the success of the mongols as conquerors
vagabundo [1.1K]
Here are some of the reasons why the Mongols were so successful as conquerors:
1 they had Genghis Khan - he was a military genius who managed to train his army well and lead them into many battles
2 they were numerous - there were over 10,000 people in the Mongolian army
3 their military strategists were quite crafty - they relied on setting traps and tricking their enemies
4 they used cruelty and fear - everyone was afraid of the Mongols and what they would do to them if they caught them
7 0
3 years ago
Investment Management Inc. (IMI) uses the capital market line to make asset allocation recommendations. IMI derives the
algol13

Answer:

The expected return that IMI can provide subject to Johnson's risk constraint is 8.5%

Explanation:

Capital Market Line (CML)

Expected return on the market portfolio, E(r_m) = 12 %

Standard deviation on the market portfolio, σ_p = 20%

Risk-free rate, r_f = 5%

E(r_c) =  r_f + [  E(r_p)  - r_f ] × ( σ_c ÷ σ_p)

         = 0.05 + [ 0.12 - 0.05] × (0.10 ÷ 0.20)

= 8.5%

5 0
3 years ago
On October 1, 2018, Swifty Company places a new asset into service. The cost of the asset is $125000 with an estimated 5-year li
Novosadov [1.4K]

Answer:

The book value of the plant asset on the December 31, 2018 is $75,000.

Explanation:

<u>Determine the depreciable cost,</u>

The depreciable cost = Acquisition cost - Salvage value.

The depreciable cost = 125,000 - 30,500.

The depreciable cost = $94,500.

<u>Determine the annual depreciation expense,</u>

The annual depreciation expense = depreciable cost/useful life

The annual depreciation expense = 94,000/5

The annual depreciation expense = $18,900.

<u>Find the % rate of depreciation .</u>

The % rate of depreciation = (18,900/94,500) × 100.

% rate of depreciation = 20%

Since it is the double-declining-balance method of depreciation we multiply the % rate by 2 =  20% × 2 = 40%

<u>Applying the rate to the carrying value of  the asset to obtain current year's depreciation expense.</u>

Current year's depreciation expense = Carrying value of  the asset × the depreciation rate %.

Current year's depreciation expense = 125,000 × 40%.

Current year's depreciation expense = $75,000

<u />

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is a “DO” regarding scannable resumes
Ratling [72]
Average recruiters eliminates a lot of applicants by scanning their resumes and find some keywords in the resume here are some "DO" things that should be in your resume :
- make it a text based format, don't rely on picture and graph since it cannot be scanned
- AVOID any typos
- do not use text box, since the scanner will categorized as graph

Hope this helps
5 0
3 years ago
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