1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
kodGreya [7K]
3 years ago
5

View the spinner.

SAT
2 answers:
horsena [70]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

blue    

Explanation:

miv72 [106K]3 years ago
7 0
Cxszvfc CSS sScxhgtt be V. Scs Xxxssvnv fsdxfcxssxd Dax tm cvdc
You might be interested in
The reading on the gauge were 2000 kpa what would the pressure in psi
RoseWind [281]
The answer is 290.0755
4 0
3 years ago
9 x 20= Puntos libres
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

180

Explanation:

because you have to multiply 9 x 20 which gives you 180 for your total

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Who is your crush ?????? who is it
BaLLatris [955]
My crush is Kenma kozume
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A box contains 40 number tiles numbered 1 to 40. If a tile is drawn at random, what is the probability that the number drawn is
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Explanation 1 P (3 or 4):

There are 40 number tiles numbered 1 to 40.

Multiple of 3 in 1 to 40 are:

There are 10 multiples till 30 (since 3 \times 10 = 30) and then 33, 36, and 39 are other three multiples till 40. So there are 13 multiples of 3 from 1 to 40.

Multiples of 4 in 1 to 40 are:

There are 10 multiples till 40 (since 4 \times 10 = 40) . So there are 10 multiples of 4 from 1 to 40.

Common Multiples of 3 and 4 in 1 to 40 is,

12, 28, 36, only 3

So, the probability of 3 or 4 is,

P(\text {mult of 3})+P(\text {mult of 4}) -P(\text {mult of 3 and 4})

=\frac{13}{40} +\frac{10}{40} -\frac{3}{40}

=\frac{23}{40} -\frac{3}{40}

=\frac{20}{40}

=\frac{1}{2}

So the probability of 3 or 4 is \frac{1}{2}.


Explanation 2 P(4 or 5):

Multiples of 4 in 1 to 40 are:

There are 10 multiples till 40 (since 4 \times 10 = 40) . So there are 10 multiples of 4 from 1 to 40.

Multiple of 5 in 1 to 40 are:

There are 8 multiples in 40 (since 5 \times 8 = 40). So there are 8 multiples of 5 from 1 to 40.

Common Multiples of 4 and 5 in 1 to 40 is,

20 and 40 only 2

So, the probability of 4 or 5 is,

P(\text {mult of 4})+P(\text {mult of 5}) -P(\text {mult of 4 and 5})

=\frac{10}{40} +\frac{8}{40} -\frac{2}{40}

=\frac{18}{40} -\frac{2}{40}

=\frac{16}{40}

=\frac{2}{5}

So the probability of 4 or 5 is \frac{2}{5}.

7 0
4 years ago
Report your scores and conclusions from "When in doubt...guess." You should give 2 scores in fractional form and your conclusion
gladu [14]
Well you can find the answer on the first page 
3 0
4 years ago
Other questions:
  • What 8 letter word can have a letter taken away and it still makes a word. Take another letter away and it still makes a word. K
    8·1 answer
  • Georgians want to change the Georgia Constitution so that the governor's term would be extended to 6 years. Where would they pla
    14·2 answers
  • What happens when Two-Bit and ponyboy are at the Tasty Freeze?​
    11·1 answer
  • Which layer of the sun is shown extending into space in the picture above?
    13·1 answer
  • Economics is the of how to​
    7·2 answers
  • All of the following are shaped by learned behavior except __________. A. shyness B. blinking C. biting one’s nails D. angry res
    7·1 answer
  • Factor 14x−24 using the gcf.
    13·1 answer
  • How do design tools build robots for a robotic process automation (rpa) application? brainly.
    9·1 answer
  • Jerry writes down all the odd numbers $1, 3, 5, 7, \dots,$ up to $999$. what is the sum of all the numbers he writes down?
    7·1 answer
  • One disorder that has to do with OCD and has been included in the DSM-5 is quizlet
    15·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!