Answer:
$98.10
Step-by-step explanation:
150 decrease 40% =
150 × (1 - 40%) = 150 × (1 - 0.4) = 90
90 increase 9% =
90 × (1 + 9%) = 90 × (1 + 0.09) = 98.1
The answer is 1 because anything Raised to the power of zero will always be one in one to the power of -2 will be one
The answer to this problem situation would be D.
To solve this problem you would simply divide 1 by 6 (the line between the 1 and 6 in the fraction is a division sign with the denominator always out and the numerator in)
1) 1÷6= 0.1666666666667
Now you traditionally and usually would round up but if the direction says otherwise then round down.
2) 0.17
And 0.17 would be your final answer!
14= 4 pi/6 pi = 2/3
15 = 8 pi/10 pi = 4/5
16 = no