Answer:
a. classifies expenses by function.
Explanation:
Multiple step format of income statement has the distinction of classifying expenses based on function as direct cost (non operational cost) and indirect cost ( operational cost).
Direct cost is cost that can be directly traced to the product like cost of raw materials.
Indirect cost is not directly linked to the product and includes salaries, rent, marketing cost, research and development, accounting fees, and legal fees.
Single step format on the other hand does not divide expenses based on function, but states the simplified revenue and expense of a business.
When a lending institution receives an amount from the individual on his/her monthly paycheck for covering his/her due debts is called Garnishment.
Option B is the correct answer.
<h3 /><h3>
What is a paycheck?</h3>
A paycheck is a check provided to the employee for the work done by him/her. It defines the amount of remuneration and other incentives earned by the employee on a monthly basis.
A legal technique that allows a third party to reduce a certain amount from the salary or wages of an individual against the payment of any dues, then this technique is called Garnishment. The third party can be the bank of the debtor and the receiver is the lending institution to whom an individual has to pay back the due amount.
Therefore, Garnishment is the process where the lender receives a certain amount from the salary of the debtor against his/her dues.
Learn more about the Garnishment on paycheck here:
brainly.com/question/14895353
#SPJ1
Answer:
B) NDPFC + Indirect Taxes
Explanation:
Net domestic product (NDP) is obtained by subtracting depreciation from gross domestic product (GDP), and it can be calculated at market price (NDPmp) or at factor cost (NDPfc):
- NDPmp = GDPmp – depreciation
- NDPfc = GDPmp – depreciation – indirect taxes
If we substitute NDPfc into option B, we will get:
NDPmp = NDPfc + indirect taxes
NDPmp = (GDPmp - depreciation - indirect taxes) + indirect taxes
NDPmp = GDPmp - depreciation
Answer:
$834,608 (Approx).
Explanation:
For computing the net present value first we have to determine the following calculations
After tax cost of debt
= Pre tax cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)
= 5.76% × (1 - 0.4)
= 3.456%
As we know that
Debt-equity ratio = debt ÷ equity
Therefore
Debt = 0.65 × equity
Let us assume the equity be $x
So,
Debt = $0.65 x
Total = $1.65x
Now
WACC = Respective costs × Respective weights
= (0.65x ÷ 1.65x × 3.456) + (x ÷ 1.65x × 11.37)
= 8.2523636%(Approx)
Now
Present value of annuity = Annuity × [1 - (1 + interest rate)^ -time period] ÷ rate
= $1.51 × [1 - (1.082523636)^ -9] ÷ 0.082523636
= $1.51 × 6.18185982
= $9,334,608.33
Now
Net present value = Present value of cash inflows - Present value of cash outflows
= $9,334,608.33 - $8,500,000
= $834,608 (Approx).
Answer:
D. $1 comma 000 billion increase
Explanation:
The reserve requirement ratio determines the total amount of checkable deposits a bank must keep.
In this case the reserve ratio it's 5%, which means that the total amount of deposits cannot exceed an amount equal to 20 times its reserves.
If the reserves increase by $50 billion then $50/0,05 = 1.000 billion increase.
