Answer:
C.) While both the Ottoman Empire and Western European states relied heavily on forced conversions to expand and maintain their empires, the Ottoman Empire remained more religiously tolerant than the Western European empires.
Explanation:
I got this question right on the first try. Here's why I knew it was C. You would need to have some knowledge about the Ottoman Empire's role of religion. I don't know if it says in the passage, so if you do find it, then give me a heads up. Remember, how did the Ottoman Empire treat the minorities? Did they force persecution/conversion to Islam? Well, not really. Although they did develop the devshirme system, it was kinda of a force conversion because the children had to give up their Christian belief, but it was seen as an opportunity. They weren't punished, so answer A is not right. So they did practice religious tolerance. Also the Ottoman Empire tried to expand the empire to make it bigger as well. There wasn't any religious wars carried out the Ottoman Empire, and answer B does not make sense. Where in the passage does it say about those two empires having efforts of doing mass conversions. Look at Source 2. Sorry if this explanation is long, but I hope this helps :)
It held the notion that the governments power comes from the people.
Britains reaction to the tea party helped to unite the colonies
Answer:
The French had a stronger relationship with the Indians. The French sought to hunt and live peacefully with the Indians, whereas the British wanted to take land away from the Indians because the British thought they were not utilizing the land and they were just letting it go to waste.
Explanation:
