I can help with financial algebra if not just a freebie
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Answer:
a)
b)
c)
And we can use the complement rule like this:
And replacing we have:
Step-by-step explanation:
Previous concepts
A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.
The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".
The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:
Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:
The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by:
We can model the number of correct questions answered with a binomial distribution
Solution to the problem
Assuming the following questions:
a) the first question she gets right is the 6th question?
For this case we want the first 5 questions incorrect and the last one correct, assuming independence we have:
(b) she gets all of the questions right?
For this case we want all the questions right so then we want this:
(c) she gets at least one question right?
For this case we want this probability:
And we can use the complement rule like this:
And replacing we have:
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
using the rule of logarithms
x = n ⇒ x =
(x + 9) + 3 = 3 ( subtract 3 from both sides )
(x + 9) = 0 , then
x + 9 = = 1 ( subtract 9 from both sides )
x = - 8
Step-by-step explanation:
Given inequality is .
To graph that inequality, first we need to graph the line . Then shade it for the inequality symbol <.
Graphing line can be done using two points.
plug x=0 into , we get:
Hence first point is (0,2)
Similarly plug any random number for x say x=4, we get:
Hence first point is (4,5).
Now we just need to graph both points and join them by a dotted line. because we have < not <=.
Next part is to test for shading.
Which can be done using any test point which is not on the given line. Say (0,0)
plug x=0,y=0 into .
0<2
which is true, hence shading will be in direction of test point (0,0).
Hence final answer will be the choice which looks like the graph attached below;
