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12345 [234]
3 years ago
8

Why did the U.S. dispatch warships to the waters off Panama?

History
1 answer:
Triss [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

to aid a Panamanian rebellion against Colombia hope that helps you out

Explanation:

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Write a short paragraph comparing and contrasting the arguments that Roosevelt and Twain made about the occupation of the Philli
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After the united states bought the Philippians  archipelago from the Spanish in a sum of 20 million dollars, the US occupation of the Philippines has been significant for molding the nation towards its independence. One of its major proponents is American leaders like Roosevelt and Twain who granted the Philippine Islands sovereignty.
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All amendments in the constitution have been proposed using which method
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The Constitution<span> provides that an </span>amendment<span> may be </span>proposed<span> either by the Congress </span>with<span> a two-thirds majority vote in both the House of Representatives and the Senate or by a </span>constitutional<span> convention called for by two-thirds of the State legislatures.</span>
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How did slavery differ in West Africa, and in the American colonies? Please Help!!<br> 20 POINTS
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In the North American colonies, the importation of African slaves was directed mainly.

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2 years ago
What was Malcolm X a member of?
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C

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i know because i watch the movies

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3 years ago
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Wyzanski argues the principle against ex post facto laws is essential for Rule Of Law (otherwise, it merely becomes Rule of Man)
diamong [38]

Answer:

Explanation:

The United States Constitution prohibits legislative bills of attainder. Which is indicated in federal law under Article I, Section 9, and in state law under Article I, Section 10.  Being banned under state law reflects the significance that the framers are connected to this issue.

The clauses that are prohibiting attainder laws serve two purposes within the U.S. Constitution. They strengthened the separation of powers by means of prohibiting the legislature to execute judicial or executive functions, because  the result of any such acts of legislature would take the form of a bill of attainder. Additionally, they incorporate the conceptualization of due process, that was relatively reinforced by the Fifth Amendment to the Constitution. The text of the Constitution, Article I, Section 9, Clause 3 states that "No Bill of Attainder or ex post facto Law shall be passed". Moreover, the constitution of every state clearly progibits bills of attainder as well. For instance, the Wisconsin's constitution under Article I, Section 12 states that, “No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, nor any law impairing the obligation of contracts, shall ever be passed, and no conviction shall work corruption of blood or forfeiture of estate.” On the contrary, the Texas version under Article 1 (Titled Bill of Rights) Section 16, entitled Bills of Attainder; Ex Post Facto or Retroactive Laws, Impairing Obligation of Contracts states that, "No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, retroactive law, or any law impairing the obligation of contracts, shall be made".  It is not clear though whether a contract that calls for heirs to be denied of their estate is permitted under this law.

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2 years ago
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