Answer:
1
Step-by-step explanation:
10 to the power of 1 is 1, 1 to the power of 10 is still 1
Here is how we get the answer....
First, replace f(x) with y . ...
Replace every x with a y and replace every y with an x .
Solve the equation from Step 2 for y . ...
Replace y with f−1(x) f − 1 ( x ) . ...
Verify your work by checking that (f∘f−1)(x)=x ( f ∘ f − 1 ) ( x ) = x and (f−1∘f)(x)=x ( f − 1 ∘ f ) ( x ) = x are both true.
Answer:
For functions, the two notations mean the exact same thing, but "f (x)" gives you more flexibility and more information. You used to say "y = 2x + 3; solve for y when x = –1". Now you say "f (x) = 2x + 3; find f (–1)" (pronounced as "f-of-x equals 2x plus three; find f-of-negative-one").
Step-by-step explanation:
For functions, the two notations mean the exact same thing, but "f (x)" gives you more flexibility and more information. You used to say "y = 2x + 3; solve for y when x = –1". Now you say "f (x) = 2x + 3; find f (–1)" (pronounced as "f-of-x equals 2x plus three; find f-of-negative-one").
Answer:BRAINLIEST PLEASE
B
Step-by-step explanation:
It is not possible right now and so if the probability is 0, then there wouldn't even be one.
Its 2 because u see how many 4s go into 8
