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Blababa [14]
3 years ago
9

The internal rate of return : (mark all that applies) does not need a required rate to calculate. rule states that a typical inv

estment project with an IRR that is less than the required rate of return should be accepted. is the more sound decision rule when dealing with mutually exclusive projects is the rate that causes the net present value of a project to exactly equal zero. can effectively be used to analyze all investment scenarios.
Business
1 answer:
k0ka [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

does not need a required rate to calculate

is the rate at which npv is zero

Explanation:

Internal rate of return is an example of capital budgeting method

Internal rate of return is the discount rate that equates the after-tax cash flows from an investment to the amount invested.

Projects with the IRR greater than the discount rate should be accepted. It means that it is profitable.

Projects with more than one negative cash flow are unsuitable for calculating with IRR. This is because it can lead to multiple IRR, Thus, it not suitable for analysing all investment scenarios.

The net present value is the most preferred capital budgeting method

Other capital budgeting methods includes

1. profitability index = 1 + (NPV / Initial investment)  

2. Accounting rate of return = Average net income / Average book value  

3. Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows

4. Net present value is the present value of after-tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.  

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Harvey's Wholesale Company sold supplies of $46,000 to Northeast Company on April 12 of the current year, with terms 1/15, n/60.
victus00 [196]

Answer:

D) Cash 45,540 Accounts receivable 45,540

Explanation:

The journal entry is shown below:

Cash A/c Dr $45,540

        To Accounts receivable A/c  $45,540

(Being cash is received in respect of goods sold)

The computation is shown below:

= Sold value of supplies - the sold value of supplies × discount percentage

= $46,000 - $46,000 × 1%

= $46,000 - $460

= $45,540

Since the net method is used so we debited the cash account and credited the account receivable account.

8 0
3 years ago
A financial crisis: Suppose the economy starts with GDP at potential, the real interest rate and the marginal product of capital
Masteriza [31]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation  

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

3 0
3 years ago
Depreciation--Jerry Company purchased machinery for $315,000 on May 1,2020 . It is estimated that it will have an useful life of
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

The depreciation for the first year is $75,000

Explanation:

In working hours method the depreciation on a fixed asset is charged using the ratio of numbers of hours utilized by the asset in a period and lifetime working capacity in hours.

First, we need to calculate the Depreciable value

Depreciable value = Cost of Asset - Salvage value = $315,000 - $15,000 = $300,000

Depreciation = Depreciable value x Numbers of hours worked / Total working capacity of Asset = $300,000 x 25,000 / 100,000 = $75,000

6 0
3 years ago
Aerotron Electronics is considering the purchase of a water filtration system to assist in circuit board manufacturing. The syst
tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value

Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>

present value of 7,500 salvage value:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  7,500.00

time   7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{7500}{(1 + 0.1)^{7} } = PV  

PV  <em> 3,848.69 </em>

<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>

half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>

Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 115,000.00

time 2 year

MARR: 10% = 0.08000

115000 \: (1+ 0.08)^{2} = Amount

Amount 134,136.00

Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  134,136.00

time   2.00

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{134136}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV  

PV   <em>110,856.20 </em>

Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:

<em>115,000 +  110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>

<em />

Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 222,007.51

time 7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

222007.51 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-7} }{0.1} = C\\

C  $ 45,601.564

<em />

6 0
3 years ago
Stock Y has a beta of 1.40 and an expected return of 14.8 percent. Stock Z has a beta of .85 and an expected return of 11.3 perc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Stock Y has overvalued and Stock Z as undervalued

Explanation:

In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below

Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)

For Stock Y

= 4.85% + 1.40 × 7.35%

= 4.85% + 10.29%

= 15.14%

For Stock Z

= 4.85% + 0.85 × 7.35%

= 4.85% + 6.2475%

= 11.0975%

The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also called market risk premium and the same is applied in the answer

As we see the expected return of both the stock So, Stock Y has overvalued and Stock Z as undervalued

4 0
3 years ago
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