Answer:
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= $2,000 favorable
Explanation:
<u>First, we need to calculate the predetermined overhead rate:</u>
<u></u>
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 2,400,000 / 240,000
Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $10 per machine hour
<u>To calculate the variable overhead spending variance, we need to use the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= (standard rate - actual rate)* actual quantity
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= (15 - 214,000/21,600)*21,600
Variable manufacturing overhead spending variance= $2,000 favorable
Answer: to catch the eye and to make merchandise look irresistible
Answer:
4.53%
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
Expected return = ∑ (Return × probability)
Thus,
Expected return = (0.06 × 22) + (0.92 × 13) + (0.02 × (-15))
= 12.98%
Now,
Probability Return Probability × (Return-Expected Return)²
0.06 22 0.06 × (22% - 12.98%)² = 4.8816
0.92 13 0.92 × (13% - 12.98%)² = 0.000368
0.02 -15 0.02 × (-15% - 12.98%)² = 5.657608
========================================================
Total = 20.5396%
Standard deviation = 
= √(20.5396)
= 4.53%
Correct option: The media only covered positive elements of the Space Race and never mentioned any setbacks.
The above given option does not talk about any aspect of media coverage of the space race and its effects on the economy. Covering only positive aspect without explaining its economic implications does not have any positive or negative effect on any economic activity, externalities or economic well being of any country. On the other hand, option B , C and D talks about economic implications.
Answer:
$1,138.92
Explanation:
Current bond price can be calculated present value (PV) of cash flows formula below:
Current price or PV of bond = C{[1 - (1 + i)^-n] ÷ i} + {M × (1 + i)^-n} ...... (1)
Where:
Face value = $1,000
r = coupon rate = 7.2% annually = (7.2% ÷ 2) semiannually = 3.6% semiannually
C = Amount of semiannual interest payment = Face value × r
C = $1,000 × 3.6% = $36
n = number of payment periods remaining = (12 - 1) × 2 = 22
i = YTM = 5.5% annually = (5.5% ÷ 2) semiannually = 2.75% semiannually = 0.0275 semiannually
M = value at maturity = face value = $1,000
Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:
PV of bond = 36{[1 - (1 + 0.0275)^-22] ÷ 0.0275} + {1,000 × (1 + 0.0275)^-22}
PV of bond = $1,138.92.
Therefore, the current bond price is $1,138.92.
