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mixer [17]
3 years ago
6

Roadway Corporation produces a special line of plastic toy racing cars. Roadway Corporation , produces the cars in batches. To m

anufacture a batch of the cars, Roadway Corporation , must set up the machines and molds. Setup costs are batch-level costs because they are associated with batches rather than individual units of products. A separate Setup Department is responsible for setting up machines and molds for different styles of car. Setup overhead costs consist of some costs that are variable and some costs that are fixed with respect to the number of setup-hours. The following information pertains to June 2015: Actual Static-budget Amounts Amounts Units produced and sold 15,700 11,950 Batch size (number of units per batch) 325 265 Setup-hours per batch 3 4.25 Variable overhead cost per setup-hour $48 $45 Total fixed setup overhead costs $11,310 $9,010 Calculate the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs. (Round all intermediary calculations two decimal places and your final answer to the nearest whole number.) Group of answer choices $435 Favorable $4,810 Favorable $4,810 Unfavorable $435 Unfavorable
Business
1 answer:
r-ruslan [8.4K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is $4,810 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is shown below;

= ((15,700 ÷ 265) × 4.25) × $45 - ((15,700 ÷ 325) × 3) × $45

= $11,330.6604 - $6,521.5384

= $4,809.12 favorable

= $4,810 favorable

hence, the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is $4,810 favorable

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Gross Earnings are the same as:
meriva
Gross income, or gross profit I think
8 0
3 years ago
Smart Solutions Inc. is evaluating a capital project for expansion. The project costs $10,000, and it is expected to generate $5
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

d) $16,550

Explanation:

First, The multiple options to the question

a)$12,500

b) $11,550

c) $14,050

d) $16,550

e) $15,000

Question: To determine the terminal value of the project

What do we know:

The Cash flow from the project is $5,000 per year and the rate is 10%

To determine the future value per year is as follows

Year 1 = (1+r)∧2= (1+0.1)∧2= 1.21

Year 2 = (1+r)∧1= (1+0.1)∧1= 1.1

Year 3 = (1+r)∧0= (1+0.1)∧0= 1

Based on these determinations, we determine the yearly value as follows

Year 1= 5,000 (1.21) = $6,050

Year 2 = 5,000 (1.1)= $5,500

Year 3= 5,000 (1) -= $5000

The terminal value = The total of the three years

= $6,050 + $5,500 + $5,000

= $16,550

4 0
3 years ago
According to the demand-pull theory, inflation is caused by:
Aliun [14]

Answer:

Understanding Demand-Pull Inflation

Demand-pull inflation is a tenet of Keynesian economics that describes the effects of an imbalance in aggregate supply and demand. When the aggregate demand in an economy strongly outweighs the aggregate supply, prices go up. This is the most common cause of inflation.

Explanation:

hope it helps you

6 0
3 years ago
Altoona Corporation has two divisions, Hinges and Doors, which are both organized as profit centers. The Hinge Division produces
Luden [163]

Answer:

Minimum transfer price = $21

Explanation:

<em>Transfer price is the price at which goods are exchange between branches or divisions of the same group</em>

<em>Where  a division is operating at the less than the existing capacity, to optimist the group profit, the minimum transfer price should be set as follows</em>

Minimum transfer price = Variable cost

Note that the fixed of $12 per unit (i.e 33-21) is irrelevant for this purpose, whether or not Hinges produces, it will be incurred either way.

It is worthy of note that there is no opportunity cost associated with any transfer to the Doors division because Hinges is currently having excess capacity.

Therefore, any offering price equal to or above the variable cost of $21 would be acceptable and optimize the group profit.

Hence, the minimum transfer price = $21

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose terri has a​ 25% chance of becoming disabled in any given year. if she does become​ disabled, she will earn​ $0. if terr
mash [69]
<span>Expected utility is calculated by multiplying the utility of each possible outcome by its probability and summing the products. So if Terri has a 25% chance of becoming disabled and purchases a policy then her expected utility is: (.25 x $20,000) + (.75 x $80,000) = $5,000 + $60,000 = $65,000. On the other hand, if Terri does not purchase a policy then her expected utility is (.25 x $0) + (.75 x $80,000) = $0 + $60,000 = $60,000.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
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