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timofeeve [1]
3 years ago
6

Write the following:a) 16 as a fraction of 152b) 15 as a fraction of 210​

Mathematics
2 answers:
Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
8 0
16/152 simplified gives us 2/19

15/210 simplified gives us 1/14

Hope this helps
Leave a like and brainliest
Nesterboy [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

\frac{16}{152}

\frac{15}{210}

Step-by-step explanation:

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X Plus y equals 8 in function form
Whitepunk [10]
Hey there, 
 
The first thing you have to do is add -1y to both sides:
 1x + 1y = 8
     +-1y   +-1y

You should get:    1x = -1y+8

So your total answer is: 1x = -1y+8

~~I hope I helped and let me know if you need anything else~~

Latis1218
7 0
3 years ago
Solve the inequality -1>-2(x-4)-5(4x-7)
g100num [7]

Answer:

Inequality Form - x>2

Interval Notation - (2,∞ )

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable by dividing each side by factors that don't contain the variable.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The length of a rectangle is 24 units. Can the perimeter x of the rectangle be 60 units when its width y is 11 units?
olganol [36]
No the rectangle cannot have x = 60 and y = 11 because x = 48 + 2y
4 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An insurance policy on an electrical device pays a benefit of 4000 if the device fails during the first year. The amount of the
lora16 [44]

Answer:

Expected benefit under this policy = $ 2694

Step-by-step explanation:

Given - An insurance policy on an electrical device pays a benefit of

            4000 if the device fails during the first year. The amount of the

            benefit decreases by 1000 each successive year until it reaches 0.

            If the device has not failed by the beginning of any given year, the

            probability of failure during that year is 0.4.

To find - What is the expected benefit under this policy ?

Proof -

Let us suppose that,

The benefit = y

Given that, the probability of failure during that year is 0.4

⇒Probability of non-failure = 1 - 0.4 = 0.6

Now,

If the device fail in second year , then

Probability = 0.6×0.4

If the device fail in third year, then

Probability = 0.6×0.6×0.4 = 0.6² × 0.4

Going on like this , we get

If the device is failed in n year, then

Probability = 0.6ⁿ⁻¹ × 0.4

Now,

The probability distribution is-

Benefit , x       4000       3000             2000            1000              0

P(x)                 0.4         0.6×0.4         0.6² × 0.4     0.6³ × 0.4     1 - 0.8704

                      (0.4)       (0.24)            (0.144)         (0.0864)       (0.1296)

At last year, the probability = 1 - (0.4+ 0.24+ 0.144+ 0.0864) = 1 - 0.8704

Now,

We know that,

Expected value ,

E(x) = ∑x p(x)

       = 4000(0.4) + 3000(0.24) + 2000(0.144) + 1000(0.0864) + 0(0.1296)

       = 1600 + 720 + 288 + 86.4 + 0

       = 2694.4

⇒E(x) = 2694.4 ≈ 2694

∴ we get

Expected benefit under this policy = $ 2694

5 0
3 years ago
15.24 x 1.64 the answer needs to be converted from us dollars to British pounds and can i have steps to plz
olga2289 [7]

Answer:

19.334

Step-by-step explanation:

First I multiplied.

15.24 x 1.64 = 24.9936

Then I convert my answer to British pounds.

24.9936 = 19.334 British Pound Sterling

Have a blessed day and hope this helps.

7 0
3 years ago
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