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n200080 [17]
3 years ago
15

Help will be greatly appreciated!!! Write the system of equations for these two lines.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Darya [45]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

See answer below:

Step-by-step explanation:

Blue: y=2x+1

Red: y=3x-2

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Viktor [21]
30, 6+9= 15+4= 19+1= 20+10= 30
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Nina had 17 marbles in a bag. Her mother put a handful of marbles in the bag. When Nina counts her marbles, she discovers she no
Ksivusya [100]
The second equation is correct. Nina initally had 17 marbles in her bag. Her mother placed m marbles into her bag. After counting, she now has 34 marbles. Part of this 34 marbles is already her initial 17 marbles. Therefore, 17 marbles initially + m unknown marbles = 34 marbles. The equation <span>17 + m = 34 is the answer.</span>
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Help help help plz plz plz
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

What would you do if he said ok so he said yes would go?

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5 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a box contains r red balls and w white balls. Suppose also that balls are drawn from the box one at a time, at rand
dybincka [34]

Answer: Part a) P(a)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

part b)P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is calculated as follows:

We have proability of any event E = P(E)=\frac{Favourablecases}{TotalCases}

For part a)

Probability that a red ball is drawn in first attempt = P(E_{1})=\frac{r}{r+w}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in second attempt=P(E_{2})=\frac{r-1}{r+w-1}

Probability that a red ball is drawn in third attempt = P(E_{3})=\frac{r-2}{r+w-1}

Generalising this result

Probability that a red ball is drawn in [tex}i^{th}[/tex] attempt = P(E_{i})=\frac{r-i}{r+w-i}

Thus the probability that events E_{1},E_{2}....E_{i} occur in succession is

P(E)=P(E_{1})\times P(E_{2})\times P(E_{3})\times ...

Thus P(E)=\frac{r}{r+w}\times \frac{r-1}{r+w-1}\times \frac{r-2}{r+w-2}\times ...\times \frac{1}{w}\\\\P(E)=\frac{r!}{(r+w)!}\times (w-1)!

Thus our probability becomes

P(E)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Part b)

The event " r red balls are drawn before 2 whites are drawn" can happen in 2 ways

1) 'r' red balls are drawn before 2 white balls are drawn with probability same as calculated for part a.

2) exactly 1 white ball is drawn in between 'r' draws then a red ball again at (r+1)^{th} draw

We have to calculate probability of part 2 as we have already calculated probability of part 1.

For part 2 we have to figure out how many ways are there to draw a white ball among (r) red balls which is obtained by permutations of 1 white ball among (r) red balls which equals \binom{r}{r-1}

Thus the probability becomes P(E_i)=\frac{\binom{r}{r-1}}{\binom{r+w}{r}}=\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}

Thus required probability of case b becomes P(E)+ P(E_{i})

= P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}\\\\

7 0
4 years ago
The graph below shows the cost that Hondo pays for apples. What does the point (0,0) on this graph mean?
timurjin [86]

Answer:

(0,0) means that he didn't buy any apples so it doesn't cost anything

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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