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kumpel [21]
3 years ago
13

The graph of f (x) = x + 5 is a vertical translation 5 units

Mathematics
1 answer:
irakobra [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A horizontal translation of 5 units to the left.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the parent linear function:

\displaystyle f(x)=x

To shift vertically n units, we can simply add n to our function. Hence:

f(x)=x+n

So, a vertical shift of 5 units up implies that n=5. So:

f(x)=x+5

As given.

However, to shift a linear function horizontally, we substitute our x for (x-n), where n is the horizontal shift. So:

f(x-n)=(x-n)

Where n is the horizontal shift.

For example, if we shift our parent linear function 1 unit to the right, this means that n=1. Therefore, our new function will be:

f(x-1)=(x-1)

Or:

f(x)=x-1

We notice that this is also a vertical shift of 1 unit downwards.

Therefore, we want a number n such that -n=5.

So, n=-5.

Therefore, it we shift our function 5 units to the left, then n=-5.

Then, our function will be:

f(x-(-5))=(x+5)\text{ or } f(x)=x+5

Hence, we can achieve f(x)=x+5 from f(x)=x using a horizontal translation by translating our function 5 units to the left.

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The graph of an inverse trigonometric function passes through the point (1, pi/2). Which of the following could be the equation
rodikova [14]

Answer: C) y=sin^-1 x

Step-by-step explanation:

Since, the graph of an inverse trigonometric function will pass through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}),

If this point satisfies the function,

For the function y=cos^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=cos^{-1}1=0

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cos^{-1} x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=cot^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=cot^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function y=cot^{-1}x,

⇒ The graph of   y=cot^{-1}x is not passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2})

For the function y=sin^{-1} x

If x = 1

y=sin^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{2}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is satisfying function y=sin^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=sin^{-1} x is passing through the point  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

For the function y=tan^{-1}x

If x = 1

y=tan^{-1}1=\frac{\pi}{4}

Thus,  (1,\frac{\pi}{2}) is not satisfying function  y=cos^{-1} x,

⇒ The graph of   y=tan^{-1} x is not passing through the point (1,\frac{\pi}{2}).

Hence, Option C is correct.

3 0
3 years ago
Name:
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1). Since, two sides of the given triangle are equal in measure, triangle is an isosceles triangle.

2). By Pythagoras theorem,

   (Hypotenuse)² = (leg 1)²+ (leg 2)²

   (15.6)² = (14.4)² + (6)²

    243.36 = 207.36 + 36

    243.36 = 243.36

    Therefore, given triangle is a right triangle.

3). Since, one angle is 123° which is greater than 90°, given triangle is an Obtuse triangle.

4). All interior angles and all sides of the triangle are equal in measure.

   Therefore, given triangle is an equilateral triangle.

5). One angle of the triangle is a right angle.

   Therefore, given triangle is a right triangle.

6). Since, all interior angles and sides of the given triangle are different in measure, it's a scalene triangle.

7). All angles and sides of the triangle are equal in measure,

   Therefore, it's an equilateral triangle.

8). One angle of the triangle is measuring 106° which is greater than 90°.

   Therefore, it's an obtuse angle.

6 0
3 years ago
A partial cylinder lies on its side. The bases are a 90° sector of a circle. What is the exact volume of the partial cylinder?
LenKa [72]

Answer:

180%


Step-by-step explanation:


8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the product of -3/8 + -4/12 simplfy your answer
Snezhnost [94]

Answer:

-\frac{17}{24}

Step-by-step explanation:

First we need to find the common denominator of 8 and 12, which is 24.

Next we rewrite our fractions:

-\frac{9}{24} - \frac{8}{24} = -\frac{17}{24}

This cannot be reduced.


4 0
4 years ago
Hey! I need this pretty fast- just do the first one though! Thank you! :)
Karolina [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

A. part 1: $1.49 for 6 pencils

1 pencil would cost $1.49 / 6 = $0.24833(5s.f.) = $0.25 (nearest cent)

part 2: $4.60 for 20 pencils

1 pencil would cost $4.60 / 20 = $0.23

best value: part 2 (20pencil pack)

If you wish to explore more into mathematics you can give me a follow on Instagram (learntionary) I'll be regularly posting notes and tips for mathematics

4 0
3 years ago
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