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Crank
2 years ago
11

The binomial distribution is appropriate to use to find the probability of the elapsed time between successes.

Mathematics
1 answer:
antiseptic1488 [7]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

b. False

Step-by-step explanation:

The binomial distribution model allows us to compute the probability of successes when the process is repeated a specific number of times.

The  binomial distribution model is given as;

P(X) = \frac{n_!}{x! (n-x)!} P^x (1-P)^{(n-x)}

n is the number of times the process is repeated,

x is the  the number of successes,

p is the occurrence of the outcome of interest,

Thus, the probability of elapsed time is best determined with Exponential distribution.

Thus, the correct option is "b"

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tresset_1 [31]

Answer: -4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so cos(x) = -4/5 and we know that:

sin^2(x) + cos^2(x) = 1.

If we plug that in and solve for sin(x) we get:

sin^2(x) = \frac{9}{25} \\sin(x) = \frac{3}{5}

Now we have to consider: <em>is sin(x) positive or negative?</em>

We have that \pi  < x < \frac{3\pi }{2}.

From the unit circle, we know that sin(x) is negative in this range. Therefore sin(x) actually equals -3/5.

But the question asks: <em>what is sin(x + \frac{\pi }{2})?</em>

Here's where another important equation comes in:

sin(\alpha  + \beta ) = sin(\alpha)cos(\beta) + cos(\alpha)sin(\beta)

In this case, we have alpha = x and beta = pi/2.

So, that looks like:

sin(x + pi/2 )= sin(x)cos(pi/2) + cos(x)sin(pi/2)

We already have what sin(x) and cos(x) are. We also know that sin( pi/2) = 1 and cos(pi/2) = 0.

sin(x  + pi/2 ) = (-3/5)(0) + (-4/5)(1).

Therefore we simply have

sin(x + pi/2) = -4/5

7 0
2 years ago
On a piece of paper, graph y&lt; 2x+2. Then determine which answer choice
serious [3.7K]

Answer:

graph A

Step-by-step explanation:

because 2x+2,x ...-1

so it is lies in graph A

7 0
2 years ago
The Bourassas decide to sell a home for $440,000. They are charged a real estate commission of 8% of the selling price, title in
ololo11 [35]

The amount received net of expenses is $397865 and the percentage of the sale price was 10%.

Given that Bourassas decides to sell a house for $ 440,000. You will be charged a real estate fee of 8% of the sale price, property insurance of 1.4% of the sale price, and an escrow fee of $ 775.

The declared retail price is $ 440,000.

Real estate commission = 8% of the sale price

Real Estate Fee = (8/100) × 440000

Real Estate Fee = 8 × 4400

Real Estate Fee = $ 35,200

Security insurance costs of the title = 1.4% of the sale price

Cost of title insurance = (1.4 / 100) × 440 000

Cost of title insurance = 1.4 × 4400

Title Insurance Cost = $ 6160

The escrow fee assigned is $ 775.

(a) In determining the amount received after deducting the sale price of the property commission, title insurance and escrow fees, we receive

Amount received after fees = sale price - real estate commission - title insurance - escrow fees

Amount received after fees = 440000-35200-6160-775

The amount received after fees = $397865

(b) To find the percentage of sale price, add together all the terms real estate commission, title insurance and escrow fees and divide by the sale price we get

Percentage of selling price=((35200+6160+775)/440000)×100

Percentage of sale price = (42135/440000) × 100

Percentage of sale price = 9.57

Percentage of sale price = 10% (rounded down)

Hence Bourassas decides to sell a house for $440,000, then the amount Bourassas will receive after expenses is $397,865 and the percentage of the sale price of expenses is 10%.

Learn more about selling price from here brainly.com/question/11067377

#SPJ1

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1 year ago
What is the Interquartile range of these numbers
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20.5 is the IQR of the given set of numbers.
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What is the relationship between the 6s in the number 6,647
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The number has one six that is in the hundreds place the other one is in the thousand place
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