Correct Question: Which of the following statements is (are) false regarding the direct method of allocating service department costs?
(A) The selection of an allocation base in the direct method is easier than the selection of an allocation base in the step method.
(B) Once an allocation is made from a service department using the direct method, no further allocations are made back to that department.
A. Only A is false.
B. Only B is false.
C. Neither A nor B is false.
D. Both A and B are false.
Answer:
A, Only A is false
Explanation:
The selection of an allocation base in the direct method is easier than the selection of an allocation base is false in that allocation base in step method allocates support costs to the support departments and the operating departments that recognise the services provided betwenn thos suport departments.
Cheers.
Answer:
7%
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the annual effective interest rate on the bonds
Using this formula
Annual Stated interest = Annual cash interest / Face vale of bonds*100
Let plug in the formula
Annual Stated interest =($7000+$7000) / 200000*100
Annual Stated interest=$14,000/20,000
Annual Stated interest=7%
Therefore the annual effective interest rate on the bonds is 7%
Answer:
Predetermined rates for each cost pool
Ordering = <u>$120,000</u>
240,000 orders
= $0.50 per order
Machine set-up = <u>$85,000</u>
340,000 set-ups
= $0.25 per set-up
Inspection = <u>$75,000</u>
75,000 inspections
= $1 per inspection
Explanation:
The predetermined rates are obtained by dividing the estimated overhead for each cost pool by the cost driver.
Answer:
You should be willing to pay $984.93 for Bond X
Explanation:
The price of a bond is equivalent to the present value of all the cash flows that are likely to accrue to an investor once the bond is bought. These cash-flows are the periodic coupon payments that are to be paid annually and the proceeds from the sale of the bond at the end of year 5.
During the 5 years, there are 5 equal periodic coupon payments that will be made. Given a par value equal to $1,000 and a coupon rate equal to 11% the annual coupon paid will be 
= $110. This stream of cash-flows is an ordinary annuity.
The PV of the cash-flows = PV of the coupon payments + PV of the value of the bond at the end of year 5
Assuming that at the end of year 5 the yield to maturity on a 15-year bond with similar risk will be 10.5%, the price of the bond will be equal to :
110*PV Annuity Factor for 15 periods at 10.5%+ $1,000* PV Interest factor with i=10.5% and n =15
= ![110*\frac{[1-(1+0.105)^-^1^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,000}{(1+0.105)^1^5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=110%2A%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%281%2B0.105%29%5E-%5E1%5E5%5D%7D%7B0.105%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%2C000%7D%7B%281%2B0.105%29%5E1%5E5%7D%20)
=$1,036.969123
therefore, the value of the bond today equals
110*PV Annuity Factor for 5 periods at 12%+ $1,036.969123* PV Interest factor with i=12% and n =5
= ![110*\frac{[1-(1+0.12)^-^5]}{0.105}+ \frac{1,036.969123}{(1+0.12)^5}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=110%2A%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%281%2B0.12%29%5E-%5E5%5D%7D%7B0.105%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%2C036.969123%7D%7B%281%2B0.12%29%5E5%7D%20)
=$984.93
