For a system of equations to have infinitely many solutions it must describe identical lines.
If you multiply the first equation by 2, then move the x term to the left side, you would get 2y-4x=-10
Final Answer:
-10
Hope I helped :)
Answer:
im pretty sure it is .17
Step-by-step explanation:
92 males buy tickets so
200-92=108
so 108 females buy tickets
30 males buy business and a total of 44 people (female and male) but business so 44-30=14
14 females buy business
108-14(business ticket) = 94 females left.
62 of those 94 females buy economy tickets
so therefore 94-62=32. 32 females left over
14 females = business
62 females = economy
14 + 62 = 76
108 - 76 = 32
32 remaining females buy premium
it says a total of 60 people buy premium so 60 - 32 = 28
so 28 males buy premium
hope this helped
Using the binomial distribution, it is found that the variance of the number that pass inspection in one day is 5.7.
For each component, there are only two possible outcomes, either it passes inspection, or it does not. The probability of a component passing inspections is independent of any other component, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
Probability of <u>exactly x successes on n repeated trials, with p probability</u>, and has variance given by:

In this problem:
- 95% pass final inspection, hence

- 120 components are inspected in one day, hence
.
The variance is given by:

The variance of the number that pass inspection in one day is 5.7.
To learn more about the binomial distribution, you can take a look at brainly.com/question/24863377
Answer:
17
Step-by-step explanation:
f(n)=5(n-1)+2
f(4)=5(4-1)+2
=5×3+2
=17
hope it helps
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