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viva [34]
3 years ago
14

What is the best first step in solving the equation 3 + = 5?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dafna1 [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

5 - 3

Step-by-step explanation:

easy way to find out

5-3= your answer in one step

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Which letter has point symmetry?
svetlana [45]

Answer:

Letters A, M, and T

Step-by-step explanation:

All of these letters have a point of symmetry.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Is the difference of 1.48-0.25 less or greater than one
adoni [48]

it is going to be greater than 1


4 0
4 years ago
Based on 2017 sales, the six top-selling compact cars are the Honda Civic, Toyota Corolla, Nissan Sentra, Hyundai Elantra, Chevr
fgiga [73]

Answer:

Pvalue = 0.020335

X² = 14.99

CONCLUSION: THERE IS DIFFERENCE IN MARKET SHARES

Step-by-step explanation:

H0 : there is no difference in market shares

H1: there is difference in market shares

Chisquare (X²) = (observed - Expected)²/ expected

Honda Civic - 0.20 * 400 = 80 : (98-80)^2 /80 = 4.05

Toyota Corolla - 0.17 * 400 = 68 : (72-68)²/68 = 0.235

Nissan Sentra - 0.12 * 400 = 48 : (54-48)²/48 = 0.75

Hyundai Elantra - 0.10 *400 = 40 : (44-40)²/40 = 0.4

Chevrolet Cruze - 0.10 * 400 = 40 : (42-40)²/40 = 0.1

Ford Focus - 0.08 * 400 = 32 : (25-32)²/32 = 1.531

Others - 0.23 * 400 = 92 : (65-92)²/92 = 7.924

X² = (4.05+0.235+0.75+0.4+0.1+1.531+7.924) = 14.99

The obtain the Pvalue ;

We use the Pvalue from Chisquare calculator :

Pvalue(14.99, 0.05, df= 6) = 0.020335

Decision region :

Reject H0 ; if Pvalue < α

THERE IS DIFFERENCE IN MARKET SHARES

Market share differences:

* 98/400 = 0.245,

0.245-0.20 = 0.045

* 72/400 = 0.18,

0.18 - 0.17 = 0.01

* 54/400 = 0.135,

0.135 - 0.12 = 0.015

* 44/400 = 0.11,

0.11 - 0.10 = 0.01

* 42/400 = 0.105

0.105 - 0.10 = 0.005

* 25/400 = 0.0625

0.0625-0.08 = -0.0175

* 65/400 = 0.1625

0.1625 - 0.23 = -0.0675

5 0
3 years ago
Can someone pls help, I'll answer your questions if you have any.
Pie
There are no pictures I see you can text me on insta if you need help original_loredo
3 0
3 years ago
A polynomial has a leading coefficient of 1 and the
avanturin [10]

Answer: it’s C and the second part is C as well

Step-by-step explanation: Just did it on edg! :))

3 0
3 years ago
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