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Natasha2012 [34]
3 years ago
10

What is the answer for this ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Nutka1998 [239]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

B. (-2,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Simply find the point where it intersects, this would be your solution.

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murzikaleks [220]

Let x = \arcsin(y), so that

\sin(x) = y

\tan(x)=\dfrac y{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

dx = \dfrac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

Then the integral transforms to

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_{y=\sin(0)}^{y=\sin\left(\frac\pi2\right)} \frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \ln(y) \frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}

\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy

Integrate by parts, taking

u = \ln(y) \implies du = \dfrac{dy}y

dv = \dfrac{y}{1-y^2} \, dy \implies v = -\dfrac12 \ln|1-y^2|

For 0 < y < 1, we have |1 - y²| = 1 - y², so

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = uv \bigg|_{y\to0^+}^{y\to1^-} + \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

It's easy to show that uv approaches 0 as y approaches either 0 or 1, so we just have

\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy

Recall the Taylor series for ln(1 + y),

\displaystyle \ln(1+y) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n y^n

Replacing y with -y² gives the Taylor series

\displaystyle \ln(1-y^2) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n (-y^2)^n = - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n y^{2n}

and replacing ln(1 - y²) in the integral with its series representation gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \int_0^1 \frac1y \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}n \, dy = -\frac12 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n-1}}n \, dy

Interchanging the integral and sum (see Fubini's theorem) gives

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy

Compute the integral:

\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy = -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}{2n^2} \bigg|_0^1 = -\frac14 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2}

and we recognize the famous sum (see Basel's problem),

\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}6

So, the value of our integral is

\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \boxed{-\frac{\pi^2}{24}}

6 0
3 years ago
Can someone help me​
kogti [31]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How is 4 greater than 5
Lelu [443]
4 is closer to 0 than 5 is
4 0
3 years ago
Gas cost $2.17 cents per gallon. He harvest for four days. He used about 38 gallons of gas in one day. What is the cost for the
34kurt

Answer:

329.84

Step-by-step explanation:

(38 x 4) 2.17

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
-4(3x - 10) &lt; -16x + 8
insens350 [35]

Answer:

x<−8

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
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