Question

20%5Ctt%5Ctan%20%28x%29%20%20%5Cln%20%28%20%20%5Csin%20%28x%29%29" id="TexFormula1" title=" \displaystyle \int \limits_{0}^{ \frac{ \pi}{2} } \tt\tan (x) \ln ( \sin (x))" alt=" \displaystyle \int \limits_{0}^{ \frac{ \pi}{2} } \tt\tan (x) \ln ( \sin (x))" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula">​

Answer 1

Let $x = \arcsin(y)$, so that

$\sin(x) = y$

$\tan(x)=\dfrac y{\sqrt{1-y^2}}$

$dx = \dfrac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}$

Then the integral transforms to

$\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_{y=\sin(0)}^{y=\sin\left(\frac\pi2\right)} \frac{y}{\sqrt{1-y^2}} \ln(y) \frac{dy}{\sqrt{1-y^2}}$

$\displaystyle \int_{x=0}^{x=\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy$

Integrate by parts, taking

$u = \ln(y) \implies du = \dfrac{dy}y$

$dv = \dfrac{y}{1-y^2} \, dy \implies v = -\dfrac12 \ln|1-y^2|$

For 0 < y < 1, we have |1 - y²| = 1 - y², so

$\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = uv \bigg|_{y\to0^+}^{y\to1^-} + \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy$

It's easy to show that uv approaches 0 as y approaches either 0 or 1, so we just have

$\displaystyle \int_0^1 \frac{y}{1-y^2} \ln(y) \, dy = \frac12 \int_0^1 \frac{\ln(1-y^2)}{y} \, dy$

Recall the Taylor series for ln(1 + y),

$\displaystyle \ln(1+y) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n y^n$

Replacing y with -y² gives the Taylor series

$\displaystyle \ln(1-y^2) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^{n+1}}n (-y^2)^n = - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n y^{2n}$

and replacing ln(1 - y²) in the integral with its series representation gives

$\displaystyle -\frac12 \int_0^1 \frac1y \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}n \, dy = -\frac12 \int_0^1 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n-1}}n \, dy$

Interchanging the integral and sum (see Fubini's theorem) gives

$\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy$

Compute the integral:

$\displaystyle -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1n \int_0^1 y^{2n-1} \, dy = -\frac12 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{y^{2n}}{2n^2} \bigg|_0^1 = -\frac14 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2}$

and we recognize the famous sum (see Basel's problem),

$\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac1{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}6$

So, the value of our integral is

$\displaystyle \int_0^{\frac\pi2} \tan(x) \ln(\sin(x)) \, dx = \boxed{-\frac{\pi^2}{24}}$