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ioda
3 years ago
13

2.933 expanded form decimals

Mathematics
1 answer:
Shkiper50 [21]3 years ago
8 0
Just put a period between everything 2.9.3.3
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If two sides of a triangle are 9cm and 15cm in length, which COULD be the measure of the third side?
MArishka [77]
The lemght could be 15 because a triangle has two long sides and one short one and the two are equivalent
5 0
3 years ago
What is the answer to the equation 5x=2x+20?
Agata [3.3K]

I don't know.  But I know how to find it.  Let's work it out together:

                                              <u>5x  =  2x + 20</u>

Subtract  2x  from each side:    3x  =  20

Divide each side by  3 :              <em>x  =  20/3</em>  or    ( 6 and 2/3 ).


3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Giving BRAINLEST PLEASE HELP!
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

The answer to the first one should be $27.32 is what the full bill costs with tax.

The answer to the second one they added an 18% tip ontop.

Step-by-step explanation:

The explanation for the second one is 27.32*.18=4.92+27.32=32.24 meaning they gave an 18% tip.

4 0
2 years ago
In the coordinate plane, the directed line segment from K to N has endpoints at K(–6, –2) and N(8, 3). Point L partitions the di
Dafna1 [17]

its c .i just took it


7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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