Answer:
the investment's coefficient of variation is 1.25.
Explanation:
The coefficient of variation relates the units of return to the units of risk. It expresses the unit of risk per 1% of return as follows :
<em>Coefficient of Variation = Standard Deviation ÷ Return</em>
Therefore,
Coefficient of Variation = 10 ÷ 8
= 1.25
Amount invested in both schemes is $45,000
returns in investment g is 75,000 in 6 years.
yearly return is:
75000/6=12,500
returns in investment h is 105,000 in 9 years
yearly return is:
105,000/9
=11,666.67
from the above results we can conclude that investment g has the higher returns.
Answer:
C and D
Explanation:
My expertise is sucking d1ck #Po4n⭐4life
Answer:
It is 16.9
Explanation:
Operating cycle = Inventory turnover + Receivable turn over - payable turnover
Hence, Operating cycle = 7.3+9.6
=16.9
Operating cycle implies how long it takes us to convert entire production process to cash .
It has an direct relationship with the level of working capital required. The higher the operating cycle, the higher the working capital investment required to keep the operation running.
A cash driven businesses like restaurant which hardly sell on credit will certainly have shorter operating cycle compared to a manufacturing company.