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Radda [10]
3 years ago
14

Northwest Fur Co. started 2021 with $103,000 of merchandise inventory on hand. During 2021, $560,000 in merchandise was purchase

d on account with credit terms of 3/15, n/45. All discounts were taken. Purchases were all made f.o.b. shipping point. Northwest paid freight charges of $8,800. Merchandise with an invoice amount of $4,900 was returned for credit. Cost of goods sold for the year was $374,000. Northwest uses a perpetual inventory system. Assuming Northwest uses the gross method to record purchases, what is the cost of goods available for sale
Business
1 answer:
Naya [18.7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The cost of goods available for sale is $650,100

Explanation:

Credit terms of 3/15, n/45 means that 3% discount for the payment within 15 days and the full amount to be paid within 45 days.

The discounts Northwest Fur Co. took = $560,000 x 3% = $16,800

Northwest uses a perpetual inventory system and the gross method to record purchases.

Net Purchases = Purchases - Purchase Returns - Purchases Discounts + Freight-In = $560,000 - $4,900 - $16,800 + $8,800 = $547,100

The cost of goods available for sale = Beginning merchandise inventory + Net Purchases = $103,000 + $547,100 = $650,100

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Assume Zap industries reported the following adjusted account balances at year-end. 2019 2018 Accounts Receivable $ 1,690,200 $
Scrat [10]

Answer:

amount of Bad Debt Expense for 2019 = $92,000

Explanation:

A bad debt expense is a uncollectible receivable amount incurred on a credit sale to a customer, who is no longer able to pay the debt, due to bankruptcy or other financial problems. Companies make provision for these kind of credit losses in the allowance for doubtful accounts, and hence records the amount used from the allowance for doubtful accounts as the bad debt expense.

In our example, the allowance for doubtful account for 2019 is $92,000, hence since it was used to settle part of the credit losses, this becomes the bad debt expense.

3 0
3 years ago
jazz world inc. is considering a project that has the following cash flow and wacc data. what is the project's npv? note that a
Marianna [84]

The project's projected NPV is $185.11. (second option)

<h3>What is the NPV?</h3>

Net present value is the present value of after-tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested. Only projects with a positive NPV should be accepted.

A project with a negative NPV should not be chosen because it isn't profitable. NPV is calculated by taking the present value of all cash flows over the life of a project. Then, the present value of cash flows is subtracted from the investment's initial investment

NPV = -1200 + 400 / 1.0975 + 425 / 1.0975² + 450 / 1.0975³ + 475 / 1.0975^4

= $185.11

To learn more about net present value, please check: brainly.com/question/25748668

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8 0
1 year ago
Item 6 In Year 1, Lee Inc. billed its customers $57,600 for services performed. The company collected $41,200 of the amount bill
katrin [286]

Answer: $57,600

Explanation:

Accounting works by the Accrual basis. What this means is that transactions are recorded in the period they occur not in the period they are paid for.

In the above, Lee Inc. billed its customers $57,600 for services performed during the year. This is a service company and since their revenue comes from billings, this is their revenue for the year.

It does not matter that some of the services have not been paid for, it matters that the services were performed during the year.

5 0
3 years ago
If accounts receivable and inventories increased by $85,000 (total), accounts payable increased by $14,000, and depreciation add
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

We can't define the firm's net income without additional information as either (1) or (2):

1) Revenues/ all income, and all expenses

2) Operating cash-flow together with interest expense, and tax rate

Explanation:

If we can have the operating cash-flow, then we can define EBIT (profit/ earnings before tax and interest) as below:

Operating cash-flow = EBIT  + depreciation - increase of accounts receivable and inventories + increase of accounts payable.

Assuming Operating cash-flow is $100,000 then we have:

EBIT = $100,000 + $64,000 - $85,000 + $14,000 = $93,000

Assuming the firm have no interest expense and tax rate is 35%, then net profit = EBIT*(1- tax rate) = $93,000 * (1-35%) = $60,450

6 0
3 years ago
What is the purpose of the BCC option in an email?
Alja [10]
Answer: To send a copy of the message to multiple recipients without revealing the entire list of recipients.

I hope this helped! (:
6 0
3 years ago
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