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tekilochka [14]
4 years ago
5

Convert 5.100 × 10-3 to ordinary notation. a.0.0005100 b.0.005100 c.510.0 d.5100

Mathematics
1 answer:
kondor19780726 [428]4 years ago
4 0
5.100 x 10⁻³ = 5.100 x 0.001
                    = 0.005100      (shift the decimal point for 5 by 3 units left)

Alternatively, because 10⁻³ = 1/1000, therefore
5.100 x 10⁻³ = 5.1/1000

           0.0051
         ---------------
1000 | 5.100
           5000
           -------------
              1000
              1000
            
This yields the same result.

Answer: b. 0.005100
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May i get help on this im sort of doing bad in this subject so thanks!
klasskru [66]

Answer:

1. 500mg

2.A watermelon weighs about 3 (grams /(kilograms) 3.

3. 500 oranges

4. 30 weeks

5. 1500

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Therefore, 0.5 g=0.5*1000=500 mg

2. A watermelon weighs about 3 (grams /(kilograms) 3.

3.Weight of the box- 40 kg

Weight of 1 orange-80

Therefore, no. of total oranges=

40 kg=40000g

Now, 40000÷80

= 500

4. 500g x 2 is 1000 g and is 1kg

105-90 is equal to 15kg

500 x 30 is 15000 g is equal to 15 kg

5. divide by 4 to get the mass of a single bag and then multiply by 1000 to get to grams from kilograms

6/4=1.5

1.5*1000=1500

therefore a single bag of sugar weighs 1500 grams

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3 years ago
Five candidates are running for three different class offices: president, vice president, and secretary. In how many ways can th
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3 years ago
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DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert all the secants and cosecants to cosine and sine, respectively. Recall that csc(x)=1/sin(x) and sec(x)=1/cos(x).

Thus:

\frac{sec(x)}{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{csc(x)cos^2(x)}

=\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{1}{sin(x)}cos^2(x) }

Let's do the first part first: (Recall how to divide fractions)

\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos(x)} \cdot \frac{1}{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}

For the second term:

\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)} } =\frac{sin(x)}{1} \cdot\frac{sin(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

So, all together: (same denominator; combine terms)

\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}-\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

Note the numerator; it can be derived from the Pythagorean Identity:

sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1; cos^2(x)=1-sin^2(x)

Thus, we can substitute the numerator:

\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=1

Everything simplifies to 1.

7 0
3 years ago
For a sample of eight​ bears, researchers measured the distances around the​ bears' chests and weighed the bears. Minitab was us
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

There is a linear correlation between the chest size and weight

Proportion of the variation in weight can be explained by the linear relationship between weight and chest​ size is 0.006724 .

Step-by-step explanation:

Null Hypothesis: H_0= There is no linear correlation between the chest size and weight

Alternative Hypothesis : H_a=There is a linear correlation between the chest size and weight

The value of the linear correlation coefficient is r=0.882.

n = 8

Formula : t=\frac{r\sqrt{n-2}}{\sqrt{1-r^2}}

t=\frac{0.882\sqrt{8-2}}{\sqrt{1-(0.882)^2}}

t=4.584

Degree of freedom = n-1 = 8-1 = 7

α =0.05

so, p value is 2.365

t calculated > t critical

So, we reject the null hypothesis

So, There is a linear correlation between the chest size and weight

The proportion of the variation in weight can be explained by the linear relationship between weight and chest​ size = r^2 = (0.082)^2=0.006724

Hence proportion of the variation in weight can be explained by the linear relationship between weight and chest​ size is 0.006724 and There is a linear correlation between the chest size and weight

4 0
3 years ago
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