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jasenka [17]
2 years ago
6

Can somebody tell me the answer to this ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dmitriy789 [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

16/93

Step-by-step explanation:

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Margot is sewing a ribbon on a seam along the perimeter of a square pillow. The side length of the pillow is 2x2 + 1 inches, and
yanalaym [24]
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Given information
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Side length of a square = 2x² + 1
Perimeter of the square = 4(2x² + 1)

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If x = 3.5, find perimeter
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Perimeter of the square = 4(2(3.5)² +1)
Perimeter of the square = 4(2(12.25) +1)
Perimeter of the square = 4(24.5 +1)
Perimeter of the square = 4(25.5)
Perimeter of the square = 102 inches

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Answer: Margot will need 102 inches of the ribbon.
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5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which expression is equivalent to 1/6 - 3/8 + 1/2
serg [7]

Answer:

7/24

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6-3/8+1/2

4/24-9/24+12/24

-5/24+12/24

7/24

3 0
2 years ago
Will give brainliest & five stars!!
Arisa [49]

Answer:

5.498 - C

Step-by-step explanation:

Length of an arc = tetha/360 × 2 × pi × r

Converting 7pi/4 to tetha

(7 × 180) / 4 = 315°, since pi = 180°

Plugging values to the formula:

315/360 × 2 × 3.142 × 1 = 5.498units

6 0
2 years ago
Find the sum of the first 100 terms of the sequence below:<br> -19, -15, -11, -7, -3, ...<br> S100
ch4aika [34]

Answer:

17900

Step-by-step explanation:

First term a = -19

common difference d = -15-(-19) = 4

number of terms, n = 100

sum of first 100 terms,

n/2(2a+(n-1)d)

= 100/2(2×(-19)+(100-1)4)

= 50×(-38+99×4)

= 50×358

= 17900

5 0
2 years ago
A study conducted at a certain high school shows that 72% of its graduates enroll at a college. Find the probability that among
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

P(X \geq 1) =1-P(X

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(4C0)(0.72)^0 (1-0.72)^{4-0}=0.00615

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.00615 = 0.99385

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X the random variable of interest "number of graduates who enroll in college", on this case we now that:  

X \sim Binom(n=4, p=0.72)  

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

We want to find the following probability:

P(X \geq 1)

And we can use the complement rule and we got:

P(X \geq 1) =1-P(X

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=0)=(4C0)(0.72)^0 (1-0.72)^{4-0}=0.00615

And replacing we got:

P(X \geq 1) = 1-0.00615 = 0.99385

5 0
3 years ago
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