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almond37 [142]
3 years ago
12

An investor owned a 100-acre parcel that contained several natural asphalt lakes. A construction company was erecting highways f

or the state in the vicinity of the investor's land and needed a supply of asphalt. The investor executed a document that, in return for a payment of $1 per barrel, gave the company the right to enter on the land and take asphalt in whatever quantities the company desired. The investor reserved the right to remove asphalt herself and to grant this right to others. Last year, the state commenced an action in eminent domain to take the investor's land for a public park. Is the construction company entitled to compensation
Business
1 answer:
Leona [35]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Yes

Explanation:

The construction company is entitled to compensation because it has a property right to enter and remove minerals.

The investor gave the construction company the right to use the properties on the land, if anything would be done on the land, the construction company should be compensated because they bought the right to do business there. Since the owner granted them the sole right, they are entitled to the resources.

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Find the amount of the payment to be made into a sinking fund so that enough will be present to accumulate the following amount.
TEA [102]

Answer:

PV= $81,947.83

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Future value= $95,000

Interest rate= 0.03

Number of periods= 5

To calculate the initial investment required to reach the objective, we need to use the following formula:

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 95,000/(1.03^5)

PV= $81,947.83

6 0
3 years ago
The clock division of Control Central Corporation manufactures clocks and then sells them to customers for $10 per unit. Its var
Nastasia [14]

Answer:

Minimum Transfer Price is $3.50

Explanation:

The Minimum transfer price is calculated by adding the variable cost per unit with the opportunity cost. In this case where the clock division is not operating at full capacity then the opportunity cost would be considered as $0.

Moreover, the division would be able to avoid a $0.5 cost per clock. Therefore, the variable cost will be $3.50 ($4 - $0.5) after eliminating the $0.5.

Finally, the minimum transfer would as follows:

Minimum Transfer Price = Variable cost + Opportunity Cost

Minimum Transfer Price = $3.50 + $0

Minimum Transfer Price = $3.50

8 0
3 years ago
Yum! Brands customizes their marketing approach to better fit certain markets. However, their overall marketing and branding mes
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

Global Marketing

Explanation:

Based on this scenario, it seems that Yum! Brands is currently in the Global Marketing stage. In this, they decide on the best way to market their product/services in such a way that will maximize their reach as well as their profits Globally. These decisions are made so that their marketing is efficient in various geographic locations without having to specifically target different marketing campaigns in each location. All of which is created and controlled from within the company's home market.

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Barney decides to quit his job as a corporate accountant (which pays $10,000 a month) and go into business for himself as a cert
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

a. $125

b. $10,300

c. $10,425

Explanation:

a. The computation of the explicit cost is shown below:

Explicit cost = Purchase of office supplies + Monthly electricity bill

                    = $75 + $50

                    = $125

b. The computation of the implicit cost is shown below:

Implicit cost = Lost of salary + rent out amount lost

                    = $10,000 + $300

                    = $10,300

c. The computation of the cost is shown below:

Economic cost = Explicit cost + Implicit cost

                         = $125 + $10,300

                         = $10,425

8 0
3 years ago
A bank has $100 million in assets in the 0 percent risk weight category, $200 million in assets in the 20 percent risk weight ca
andre [41]

Answer:

5.48% is the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate the bank’s ratio of Tier 1 capital to risk-weighted assets.

Firstly, we calculate the risk weighted asset for the bank

The risk weighted assets = The sum of the all the individual assets multiplied by the their percentage risk category

RWA = (100 * 0) + (200 * 0.2) + (500 * 0.5) + (750 * 1) = 0 + 40 + 250 + 750 = 1040

Now, the tier 1 capital to risk weighted ratio = 57/1040 = 0.0548 = 5.48%

5 0
3 years ago
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