<span>Winning Probablity = 0.2, hence Losing Probability = 0.8
Probablity of winning atmost one time, that means win one and lose four times or lose all the times. So p(W1 or W0) = p (W1) + p(W0)
Winning once W1 is equal to L4, winning zero times is losing 5 times.
p(W1) = p(W1&L4) and this happens 5 times; p(W0) = p(L5);
p (W1) + p(W0) = p(L4) + p(L5)
p(L4) + p(L5) = (5 x 0.2 x 0.8^4) + (0.8^5) => 0.8^4 + 0.8^5
p(W1 or W0) = 0.4096 + 0.32768 = 0.7373</span>
9514 1404 393
Answer:
- 4% fund: $39,000
- 52% fund: $1000
Step-by-step explanation:
Let x represent the amount invested at 52%. Then (40000-x) is the amount invested at 4%. The total annual interest is ...
0.52x +0.04(40000-x) = 2080
0.48x = 480 . . . . . . . . . subtract 1600, simplify
x = 1000 . . . . . . . . . divide by 0.48
Then the amounts invested in each fund are ...
4% fund: $39,000
52% fund: $1000
Answer:
1.75 in
Step-by-step explanation:
kyo na bhala dyan sa sgot
Answer:
[-1,3]
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
The first and second choice since those symbols are the ones that apply to open circle on the number line and the 2 last ones are closed circles
Step-by-step explanation:
