Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
Answer:
70/100
0.7
70%
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A bag contains 4 blue, 5 white, and 6 green balls. ... There are 5 red and 15 black balls in a box, two are picked up at random
Answer:
x=0.87 or 86.67%
13 prescription claims out of 15 are paid
Step-by-step explanation:
First we organize the data:
prescription claims submitted: 4500
Prescriptions: 3900
The rate of claims paid is calculated using the following formula:
We know that:
Paid = 3900
Total = 4500
So
x=0.87
Answer:
<u>infinitely many solutions</u>
Step-by-step explanation:
The system of equations :
- 3x + 2y = 7
- -4.5x - 3y = -10.5
Multiplying Equation 1 times 3 and Equation 2 times 2 :
- 9x + 6y = 21
- -9x - 6y = -21
Putting the equations in standard form after simplifying :
- 6y = -9x + 21 ⇒ <u>y = -1.5x + 3.5</u>
- -6y = 9x - 21 ⇒ <u>y = -1.5x + 3.5</u>
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As both equations are the same, the system will have <u>infinitely many solutions</u>.
