Answer:
$10.80
Step-by-step explanation:
1. Multiply 135 by .08
There are various statistical tests which determine the differences between groups or more like anova, t-test, f-test, etc. examples on the other hand of test statistics that examine the relationship of variables includes linear regression which tests the r^2 and correlation.
For binomial distribute we use formula
the probability mass function of the binomial distribution is:
Given n = 12 and π = .6. (Replace the values)
the probability for x = 5, we need to find P(x=5). Here r= 5
P(x=5)= 
= 
= 0.10090 = 0.101
(b) the probability for x ≤ 5
P(x<=5) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) +P(x=2)+ P(x=3) + P(x=4) + P(x=5)
P(x<=5) = 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+
= 0.15821229 = 0.158
(c) find the probability for x ≥ 6
P(x>=6) =P(x=6) + P(x=7) +P(x=8)+ P(x=9) + P(x=10) + P(x=11)+ P(x=12)
P(x>=6) = 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
+ 
= 0.8417877 = 0.0842 (rounded to 3 decimal places)
Answer:
all you said was first to answer gets brainly so give it over
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
E. (You always start with the given statement)
C.
A.
D.
B.
Step-by-step explanation:
The first line is given and therefore goes with E. Given.
The second line comes from the definition of median.
It bisects the opposite side from the vertex is being drawn from: So we have FA=FB, BE=EC, and CG=GA.
Second box goes with C.
Third line says FA/FB=1, BE/EC=1, and CG/GA=1.
How did they get this. It looks like they divided previous equation on both sides by right hand side's expression.
For example:
FA=FB
Divide both sides by FB you get:
FA/FB=FB/FB
FA/FB=1
So third line goes with A.
The fourth line is substitution property. 1=1(1)(1)=1(FA/FB)(BE/EC)(CG/GA). They replaced the 1's with what we had in the previous line.
Fifth line is Ceva's Theorem since it states that the FA:FB=BE:EC=CG:GA=1 implies the medians are concurrent.
