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stira [4]
3 years ago
8

On January 1, Year 1, Michael sold a property with a remaining useful life of 20 years to Wei Co. for $800,000. On the same date

, Michael leased back the property from Wei for 18 years. The lease was properly classified by Michael as a finance lease. Michael is not sure how to recognize the $800,000 received from Wei Co. on January 1, Year 1.
Required:
Which section of the Accounting Standards Codification best helps Michael Co. determine how the initial proceeds of $800,000 received from Wei Co. (buyer-lessor) are recognized?
Business
1 answer:
dezoksy [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The section of the Accounting Standards Codification that best helps Michael Co. to determine how the initial proceeds of $800,000 received from Wei Co. (buyer-lessor) are recognized is:

ASC 606.

Explanation:

This section that will help Michael Co. to determine if the transaction qualifies as a sale, which is treated under ASC 606, Revenues from Contracts with Customers.  Thereafter, the lease classification criteria in ASC 842 are evaluated.  After the evaluation, if none of the criteria from ASC 842 are met to account for the lease as a finance or capital lease, the seller-lessee would classify the lease as an operating lease.  This implies that the transaction qualifies as a sale and leaseback transaction.

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Shares of Notung Cutlery Corp. closed 2010 at $75 per share. Notunghad 14.5 million shares outstanding. The assets are valued at
Kay [80]

Answer:

If you considered that outstanding shares are equal that total shares, then: market capitalization is $1.085 billions; market value added is $477.5 millions and the market-ti-book ratio is 1.78.

Explanation:

To get these numbers we calculate as follow: market capitalization = number of shares multiply by the price per share (75$ x 14.5 million); marked value added = market capitalization - (total assets - liabilities) [1.085 Bn - (1 Bn - 390 m)] ; and market-to-book ratio = market capitalization / book value (1.085bn/610m)

6 0
3 years ago
In the papyrus corporation, cash receipts from customers were $136,000, cash payments for operating expenses were $102,000, and
sleet_krkn [62]
Cash receipts from customers = $136,000
cash payment for operating expenses = $102,000
tax paid  = 1 / 3
Amount on which tax paid = $9,300
amount of tax paid = $9,300 / 3 = $3,100
net cash provides by operating activities = ?
Net cash = cash from customers - cash payment for operating expense -  amount of tax paid
= $136,000 - $102,000 - $3,100
= $30,900
so the net cash provided by operating activities is $30,900
4 0
3 years ago
Sweet Sue Foods has bonds outstanding with a coupon rate of 5.44 percent paid semiannually and sell for $1,930.36. The bonds hav
tigry1 [53]

Answer:

Current yield=5.6%

Explanation:

<em>The current yield is the proportion of the current price of a bond earned as annual  interest payment.</em>

<em>Current yield = annual interest payment/bond price</em>

<em>Annual interest payment = coupon rate × face value</em>

                                          = 5.44% × $2000

                                          = $108.8

Current yield

= annual interest payment/price

= $(108.8/1,930.36) × 100

= 5.6%

Note we used the annual interest payment nothwithstanding that interests are paid semi-annually

6 0
4 years ago
In Chile, one worker can harvest 4 pounds of peppers or 4 pounds of coffee beans. In Argentina, one worker can harvest 2 pounds
Monica [59]

Chile- 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans, is the correct solution of the question.

<h3>Explanation of the question?</h3>

It loses 4 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 4 pounds of peppers. As a result, if the worker produces 4 pounds extra peppers, 4 pounds of coffee beans will be lost. As a result, the opportunity cost of generating an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Chile is equal to 4 pounds of coffee beans.

Argentina's case:

It loses 8 pounds of coffee beans if one worker produces 2 pounds of peppers.

As a result, if the worker produces 1 pound of pepper, it loses = 8/2 = 4 pounds of coffee beans.

The worker will lose = 4 * 4 = 16 pounds of coffee beans if he produces 4 pounds of peppers.

As a result, the potential cost of producing an additional 4 pounds of peppers for Argentina is 16 pounds of coffee beans.

Thus, it is 4 pounds of coffee beans, Argentina - 16 pounds of coffee beans.

For more details about about the question, click here:

brainly.com/question/15304707

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
MacDonald​ Products, Inc., of​ Clarkson, New​ York, has the option of ​(a) proceeding immediately with production of a new​ top-
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

The EMV for option a is ​$5,679,100

The EMV for option b is ​$5,719,200

Therefore, option b has the highest expected monetary value.

Explanation:

The EMV of the project is the Expected Money Value of the Project.

This value is given by the sum of each expected earning/cost multiplied by each probability.

So

a) proceeding immediately with production of a new​ top-of-the-line stereo TV that has just completed prototype testing.

There are these following probabilities:

77% probability of selling 100,000 units at $610 each.

23% probability of selling 70,000 units at $610 each.

So

EMV = 0.77*E_{1} + 0.23*E_{2}

E_{1} = 100,000*610 = 6,100,000

E_{2} = 70,000*610 = 4,270,000

EMV = 0.77*E_{1} + 0.23*E_{2} = 0.77*(6,100,000) + 0.23*(4,270,000) = 5,679,100

​(b) having the value analysis team complete a study.

There are these following probabilities:

74% probability of selling 85,000 units at $720.

26% probability of selling 70,000 units at $720.

The cost of value engineering, at 120,000. So this value is going to be dereased from the EMV.

EMV = 0.74*E_{1} + 0.26*E_{2} - 120,000

E_{1} = 85,000*720 = 6,120,000

E_{2} = 70,000*720 = 5,040,000

EMV = 0.74*E_{1} + 0.26*E_{2} - 120,000 = 0.74*6,120,000 + 0.26*5,040,000 - 120,000 = 5,719,200

4 0
3 years ago
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