a. Standard labor-hours is 7920 hours.
b. Standard labor cost allowed is $42,768.
c. The labor spending variance is $1588(U).
d. The labor rate variance is $1706 and the labor efficiency variance $3294(U).
e. The variable overhead rate is $5971(U) and efficiency variances for the month $5580(U).
<u>Explanation:</u>
a)Standars hours(SH) allowed to make 19800 jogging mates
=SH per unit 
19800
=(24/60)*19800
=7920 hours
24/60 has been taken to convert minutes into hours.
b)Standard Labor Cost (SC) of 19800 jogging mates
=$42,768
c)Labour Spending Variance
=$1588(U)
d)Labor Rate Variance
=$1706
Actual Hours(AH) * Actual Rate per hour(AR)= Actual Cost(AC)
Labor Efficiency Variance
=$3294(U)
e) Variable overhead rate variance = Actual hours worked (Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate)
= 8530 (4.5 - 5.20)
= $5971(U)
Actual overhead rate = $44,356 / 8530 = 5.20
Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard overhead rate (Standard hours - Actual hours)
= 4.50 (7290 - 8530)
= $5580(U).
Answer:
has a fair market net worth sufficient to sustain the risks of the program.
Explanation:
FINRA is an acronym for Financial Industry Regulatory Authority. It is a non-profit agency in the United States of America, which is saddled with the responsibility of handling the licensing and regulation of broker-dealers in securities.
A direct participation program (DPP) can be defined as a financial security which gives an investor (customer) access to the cash flow and tax benefits of a business venture.
Under FINRA rules, to recommend a direct participation program (DPP) to a customer, the registered representative must ascertain and ensure that the customer has a fair market net worth that is considered to be sufficient to sustain the risks associated with the program, including loss of investment and lack of liquidity.
Answer:
2%
2.5%
1.67%
Explanation:
The yield can be computed using the yield formula which coupon payment divided by price.
The coupon payment=face value*coupon rate
face value is $1000
coupon rate is 2%
coupon payment=2%*$1000=$20
when price is $1000:
yield =$20/$1000=2%
when price is $800
yield=$20/$800=2.5%
when price is $1,200
yield =$20/$1,200=1.67%
In essence ,the lower the price the higher the yield as lower amount is invested in order to receive the same amount of annual coupon of $20
Answer:
Following are the answer to this question:
Explanation:
It is a great approach since it encourages and guarantees enhanced investment in infrastructure. Even so, a reduction in the possible future investment funds caused by government confidence will also result in business mistakes or failures throughout the investment process, and that's why the officials of the White House frequently exude a greater level of pride in prospects for the economic system than they feel.
